NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_0077
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1. Which is the recommended rate of chest compression?
a. 90 per minute
b. At least 100/min
c. Between 100-120/min
d. More than 120/min
Answer: c. Between 100-120/min
Description:The recommended rate of chest compressions during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is between 100 and 120 compressions per minute. This means that for effective chest compressions, the rescuer should aim to perform at least 100 compressions but not exceed 120 compressions within a one-minute time frame. This range ensures adequate blood flow and circulation to the heart and brain during CPR. Therefore, option c, "Between 100-120/min," is the correct answer.
2. What should be the depth of chest compression in adult?
a. 3 inches
b. >2.4 inches
c. At least 5 cm
d. At least 7 cm
Answer: c. At least 5 cm
Description:When performing chest compressions on an adult during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the depth of compression should be at least 5 centimeters (or 2 inches). It is important to provide adequate depth to ensure effective circulation and blood flow to vital organs. However, excessive depth should be avoided as it may cause injury. Consistently maintaining the appropriate depth and rate of compressions is crucial for successful CPR.
3. What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations when one rescuer performs cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult?
a. 30:1
b. 30:2
c. 15:1
d. 15:2
Answer: b. 30:2
Description:When one rescuer performs CPR on an adult, the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilations is 30:2. This means that after each set of 30 chest compressions, the rescuer should provide 2 ventilations. The chest compressions should be performed at a rate of at least 100-120 compressions per minute, with a depth of about 2 inches (5 centimeters). The ventilations should be given over about 1 second each, ensuring adequate chest rise.
4. What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations when two rescuers perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult?
a. 30:1
b. 30:2
c. 15:1
d. 15:2
Answer: b. 30:2
Description:When two rescuers perform CPR on an adult, the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilations is 30:2. This means that for every 30 chest compressions, two ventilations (rescue breaths) should be given. The purpose of chest compressions is to circulate the blood and maintain oxygen delivery to the vital organs, while ventilations help to provide oxygen to the lungs. It's important to note that these guidelines are subject to change and may vary based on the latest CPR protocols issued by the American Heart Association (AHA) or other relevant organizations. It's always a good idea to stay updated with the latest guidelines and receive proper CPR training from certified instructors.
5. Compression to ventilation ratio during 2-rescuer child/infant CPR is:
a. 15:1
b. 15:2
c. 30:1
d. 30:2
Answer: b. 15:2
Description:During 2-rescuer child/infant cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the compression to ventilation ratio is typically 15:2. This means that for every 15 chest compressions, two ventilations (breaths) are given. The rescuers take turns performing the compressions and ventilations to maintain effective CPR. It's important to note that CPR guidelines and recommendations can change over time, so it's always a good idea to stay updated with the current guidelines from recognized organizations such as the American Heart Association (AHA) or the International Liaison Committee on Resuscitation (ILCOR).
6. Compression to ventilation ratio during 1-rescure child/infant CPR is:
a. 15:1
b. 15:2
c. 30:1
d. 30:2
Answer: b. 15:2
Description:The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio during 1-rescuer child/infant CPR is 15:2. This means that for every 15 chest compressions, you should provide 2 rescue breaths. The ratio is different for infants (children under 1 year of age) compared to children (1 year of age and older). It is important to note that these guidelines may vary based on the specific CPR guidelines recommended by the American Heart Association (AHA) or other authoritative bodies. It is always a good idea to refer to the most recent guidelines to ensure accurate and up-to-date information.
7. When 2 or more rescuers are available for resuscitation, rescuer can be changed:
a. Every 2 min
b. Every 2 cycles
c. Every 5 min
d. Every 6 min
Answer: a. Every 2 min
Description:effective chest compressions and ventilation. It ensures that each rescuer stays fresh and able to deliver high-quality CPR. By rotating rescuers every 2 minutes, the likelihood of fatigue-related mistakes or a decline in the quality of CPR is minimized. This allows for more effective and sustained resuscitation efforts in the case of a cardiac arrest.
8. AED stands for:
a. Arrhythmia eliminating device
b. Advanced emergency defibrillator
c. Authorized emergency defibrillator
d. Automated external defibrillator
Answer: d. Automated external defibrillator
Description:Automated external defibrillator. An AED is a portable electronic device that is used to diagnose and treat sudden cardiac arrest (SCA) by delivering an electric shock to the heart to restore its normal rhythm. AEDs are designed to be used by non-medical personnel in emergency situations and can greatly increase the chances of survival for someone experiencing SCA.
9. Which among the following statements is correct?
a. Each shock be followed by CPR
b. CPR is not mandatory after each shock
c. Defibrillation is indicated in pulseless electrical activity
d. Compress the heart during defibrillation
Answer: a. Each shock be followed by CPR
Description:a. Each shock should be followed by CPR. After delivering a shock using a defibrillator, it is recommended to immediately resume CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) before assessing the patient's rhythm again. CPR helps circulate oxygenated blood throughout the body and can improve the chances of restoring a normal heart rhythm. Therefore, it is important to perform CPR after each shock to maximize the effectiveness of resuscitation efforts.
10. Mitral regurgitation is seen during
a. Ventricular diastole
b. Ventricular systole
c. Atrial diastole
d. Atrial systole
Answer: b. Ventricular systole
Description:Mitral regurgitation is the backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium during ventricular systole. During ventricular systole, the ventricles contract and pump blood out of the heart. The mitral valve, which separates the left atrium from the left ventricle, should close tightly during ventricular systole to prevent the backflow of blood. However, in the case of mitral regurgitation, the valve does not close properly, allowing blood to flow back into the atrium. This results in the characteristic murmur associated with mitral regurgitation.
11. Turner syndrome is associated with?
a. Aortic regurgitation
b. Pulmonic stenosis
c. Coarctation of aorta
d. Aortic dissection
Answer: c. Coarctation of aorta
Description:Turner syndrome, also known as 45,X or monosomy X, is a genetic disorder that affects females. It occurs when one of the X chromosomes is either partially or completely missing. Turner syndrome is associated with a variety of health issues, and one of the common cardiovascular abnormalities seen in individuals with Turner syndrome is coarctation of the aorta. Coarctation of the aorta is a narrowing of the aorta, the main artery that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. It can lead to high blood pressure and affect blood flow to the lower part of the body. Other cardiovascular abnormalities that can be associated with Turner syndrome include bicuspid aortic valve, aortic valve stenosis, and aortic dilation. However, aortic regurgitation, pulmonic stenosis, and aortic dissection are not typically associated with Turner syndrome.
12. Displacement of cardiac apex to left and downwards indicates?
a. Right ventricular hypertrophy
b. Left ventricular hypertrophy
c. Right atrial hypertrophy
d. Left atrial hypertrophy
Answer: b. Left ventricular hypertrophy
Description:The displacement of the cardiac apex to the left and downwards typically indicates left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). LVH is a condition characterized by an increase in the size and thickness of the left ventricular muscle. It is commonly associated with conditions such as high blood pressure (hypertension), aortic valve disease, or other conditions that cause increased workload on the left ventricle. As the left ventricle enlarges, it displaces the cardiac apex in a leftward and downward direction. This displacement can be observed on imaging studies such as chest X-rays or echocardiograms. It's important to note that the displacement of the cardiac apex alone is not diagnostic of left ventricular hypertrophy. A comprehensive evaluation, including medical history, physical examination, and additional diagnostic tests, is necessary to confirm the presence of LVH.
13. Vegetation on the heart valves result from:
a. Bacterial invasion
b. Poor diet
c. Hypertension
d. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: a. Bacterial invasion
Description:Vegetations on heart valves, also known as endocarditis vegetations, are typically caused by bacterial infections. Bacteria can invade the heart valves and form clumps of infected tissue, which are called vegetations. These vegetations consist of a mixture of bacteria, inflammatory cells, blood products, and damaged tissue. Bacterial endocarditis occurs when bacteria enter the bloodstream and attach to the heart valves, which may be damaged or have abnormal surfaces. The bacteria can colonize the valves and form vegetations over time. The condition is usually associated with certain risk factors such as prior heart valve damage, intravenous drug use, prosthetic heart valves, congenital heart defects, and dental or surgical procedures. Poor diet, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus can contribute to the development of cardiovascular diseases and may increase the risk of developing conditions such as atherosclerosis, hypertension, and coronary artery disease. While these conditions can lead to heart valve problems indirectly, they are not direct causes of vegetation formation on heart valves. Bacterial invasion is the primary cause of vegetations on heart valves.
14. Causes being cardiac valve disorder include all; EXCEPT:
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Infection endocarditis
c. Connective tissue abnormalities
d. Congestive heart failure
Answer: d. Congestive heart failure
Description:Congestive heart failure is not a direct cause of cardiac valve disorders. It is a condition that occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, often due to underlying heart diseases or conditions. While congestive heart failure can lead to valve dysfunction as a result of the strain on the heart, it is not a primary cause of cardiac valve disorders. Rheumatic fever, infection endocarditis, and connective tissue abnormalities are known causes of cardiac valve disorders.
15. Water hammer pulse is a feature of:
a. Aortic stenosis
b. Aortic regurgitation
c. Mitral regurgitation
d. Tricuspid regurgitation
Answer: b. Aortic regurgitation
Description:Water hammer pulse is indeed a feature of aortic regurgitation..
16. Flushed cheeks can be seen in patient with:
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Aortic stenosis
c. Mitral regurgitation
d. Tricuspid regurgitation
Answer: a. Mitral stenosis
Description:a. Mitral stenosis: Mitral stenosis can cause flushed cheeks due to increased blood pressure in the pulmonary circulation, leading to dilation of blood vessels in the cheeks. b. Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis can also result in flushed cheeks. This condition involves narrowing of the aortic valve, which can increase blood pressure in the systemic circulation, causing dilation of blood vessels in the face. c. Mitral regurgitation: In some cases of severe mitral regurgitation, where there is backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium during systole, flushed cheeks may be observed due to increased blood volume in the pulmonary circulation. d. Tricuspid regurgitation: Tricuspid regurgitation is the backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium during systole. While it may not commonly present with flushed cheeks, severe tricuspid regurgitation can cause peripheral vasodilation, which may result in flushed skin. It's important to note that flushed cheeks can be a nonspecific symptom and may not always be present in these conditions. Clinical evaluation and additional symptoms should be considered to make an accurate diagnosis.
17. Commonest cause of mitral valve stenosis in Indian patients?
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Rheumatic endocarditis
c. Cyanotic heart disease
d. Infective endocarditis
Answer: b. Rheumatic endocarditis
Description:The commonest cause of mitral valve stenosis in Indian patients is rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can occur after a streptococcal throat infection. It can lead to damage and scarring of the heart valves, including the mitral valve. This scarring can cause the valve to become stiff and narrow, resulting in mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever is a significant cause of mitral valve disease in many parts of the world, including India. While other conditions such as rheumatic endocarditis, cyanotic heart disease, and infective endocarditis can also cause mitral valve stenosis, rheumatic fever is the most common cause in Indian patients.
18. Inflammation of the valves and inner layer of the heart is known:
a. Endocarditis
b. Myocarditis
c. Pericarditis
d. Epicarditis
Answer: a. Endocarditis
Description:Inflammation of the valves and inner layer of the heart is known as endocarditis (option a). Endocarditis is typically caused by an infection, most commonly by bacteria, and can lead to damage of the heart valves.
19. Organism responsible for bacterial endocarditis is:
a. α-Hemolytic streptoccoi
b. β-Hemolytic streptoccoi
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pneumococci
Answer: b. β-Hemolytic streptoccoi
Description:Bacterial endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and heart valves. While various bacteria can cause endocarditis, Staphylococcus aureus is one of the most common pathogens associated with this condition. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacterium that can cause a wide range of infections, including skin and soft tissue infections, pneumonia, and bloodstream infections. It is a beta-hemolytic bacterium, which means it can completely lyse (destroy) red blood cells and produce a clear zone around the bacterial colonies on blood agar. Other bacteria that can cause endocarditis include Streptococcus species, including some alpha-hemolytic streptococci (option a), but Staphylococcus aureus is more commonly associated with this condition. Pneumococci (option d) are Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can cause pneumonia and other respiratory tract infections but are less commonly implicated in endocarditis. Beta-hemolytic streptococci (option b) can cause various infections, but they are not the primary organisms responsible for bacterial endocarditis.
20. Which type of valve is porcine heart valve?
a. Xenogeneic
b. Allogeneic
c. Autologous
d. Metallic
Answer: a. Xenogeneic
Description:The porcine heart valve is a type of xenogeneic valve. Xenogeneic valves are valves that are harvested from animals, such as pigs (porcine) or cows (bovine), and then used in human patients. The porcine heart valve is commonly used in heart valve replacement surgeries and is considered a suitable substitute for damaged or diseased human heart valves.
21. The spleen lies against:
a. 6th, 7th and 8th ribs
b. 7th, 8th, and 9th ribs
c. 8th, 9th and 10th ribs
d. 9th, 10th and 11th ribs
Answer: d. 9th, 10th and 11th ribs
Description:The spleen lies against the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs.
22. Blood without blood cell is:
a. Serum
b. Plasma protein
c. Plasma
d. Coagulation factors
Answer: c. Plasma
Description:Plasma is the liquid component of blood that remains after the removal of blood cells, platelets, and fibrinogen during the process of clotting. It is a yellowish fluid consisting of water, electrolytes, proteins, hormones, enzymes, and waste products. Plasma makes up about 55% of the total volume of blood and serves as a medium for transporting nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body. Serum refers to the fluid component of blood that remains after the coagulation process, which includes the removal of clotting factors. Serum does not contain clotting factors, but it does contain other proteins, electrolytes, hormones, and waste products. Plasma proteins, including albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen, are found in plasma and play various roles in maintaining blood pressure, regulating osmotic balance, transporting substances, and facilitating clotting. Coagulation factors are proteins present in blood plasma that are essential for the clotting process. They are not present in blood without blood cells.
23. Part of the blood without cells and protein is known as:
a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Blood
d. None
Answer: a. Serum
Description:Serum is the liquid component of blood that remains after the blood cells and clotting proteins have been removed. It is a clear, yellowish fluid that contains various substances such as electrolytes, hormones, antibodies, enzymes, and waste products. Serum is commonly used in medical testing and diagnostics to analyze and measure different components of blood, as it does not contain cells or clotting factors that can interfere with the accuracy of the results.
24. True regarding plasma is:
a. Sedimentation of uncoagulated blood gives plasma
b. Fibrinogen and other clotting factors are present
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: c. Both a and b
Description:Plasma is the liquid component of blood that remains after the cells, platelets, and fibrinogen have been removed by sedimentation or centrifugation. Option a states that sedimentation of uncoagulated blood gives plasma, which is correct. Plasma contains various proteins, including fibrinogen and other clotting factors, such as prothrombin, factors VII, VIII, IX, X, XI, and XIII. These clotting factors are essential for the formation of blood clots. Option b states that fibrinogen and other clotting factors are present in plasma, which is also correct. Therefore, both options a and b are true statements about plasma.
25. Which of these statements is TRUE regarding blood?
a. Generally, there are four types of blood cells.
b. Plasma constitutes 55% of the blood volume
c. The normal pH of blood is between the range of 7.2 and 7.5
d. The blood volume in an average adult is about 4% of body weight
Answer: b. Plasma constitutes 55% of the blood volume
Description:Plasma is the liquid component of blood and makes up the largest proportion of blood volume, approximately 55%. It is a yellowish fluid that contains water, electrolytes, proteins, hormones, waste products, and various other substances. The remaining 45% of blood volume consists of different types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
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