NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_0081
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1. Bone marrow examination is used in:
a. Megaloblastic anemia
b. Leukemia
c. Myelodysplastic syndrome
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Description:Bone marrow examination is used in all of the above conditions: megaloblastic anemia, leukemia, and myelodysplastic syndrome. Bone marrow examination, also known as a bone marrow biopsy or aspiration, involves the collection and analysis of a sample of bone marrow tissue. It is a valuable diagnostic tool that helps in evaluating various hematological disorders and diseases involving the bone marrow. In megaloblastic anemia, bone marrow examination can reveal changes in the size and structure of red blood cell precursors, indicating impaired maturation and abnormal cell division. Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow and blood. Bone marrow examination plays a crucial role in diagnosing and classifying different types of leukemia. It helps in identifying abnormal cells, assessing their characteristics, and determining the extent of disease involvement. Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) is a group of disorders characterized by abnormal production of blood cells in the bone marrow. Bone marrow examination helps in assessing the morphology and distribution of blood cell precursors, aiding in the diagnosis and classification of MDS. Overall, bone marrow examination provides valuable information about the cellular composition, maturation, and abnormalities within the bone marrow, making it an essential tool in the evaluation of various hematological conditions.
2. Hemolytic disease of the new born is diagnosed with…….
a. Amniocentesis
b. Direct Combs’ test
c. Indirect Coombs test
d. Plasmapheresis
Answer: b. Direct Combs’ test
Description:The Indirect Coombs test is a blood test that detects the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that may be targeting the baby's red blood cells. In hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother's immune system produces antibodies against the baby's red blood cells, leading to their destruction and resulting in anemia and other complications. The Direct Coombs test (option b) is used to diagnose autoimmune hemolytic anemia and detects antibodies already attached to the patient's red blood cells. It is not specific to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Amniocentesis (option a) is a prenatal diagnostic test that involves the removal of a small amount of amniotic fluid for various purposes, such as genetic testing, detecting chromosomal abnormalities, or assessing fetal lung maturity. It is not used specifically for diagnosing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Plasmapheresis (option d) is a procedure in which blood plasma is removed from the body, separated from the other blood components, and then returned to the patient. It is a therapeutic intervention used to remove harmful substances from the plasma, such as antibodies or toxins. Plasmapheresis is not a diagnostic test for hemolytic disease of the newborn.
3. Supra vital staining and Brilliant cresyl blue technique is used for……….cells:
a. Lymphocyte
b. Reticulocytes
c. Neutrophil
d. Monocyte
Answer: b. Reticulocytes
Description:The Supravital staining technique, specifically using Brilliant Cresyl Blue, is commonly used for staining reticulocytes. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain some RNA, which gives them a reticulated or network-like appearance when stained. This staining technique allows for the visualization and enumeration of reticulocytes, which can be useful in evaluating bone marrow function and diagnosing certain types of anemia.
4. Which one of the following cause hemoglobin curve hemoglobin curve to shift to right?
a. Decrease in pH
b. Increase in pH
c. Decrease in temperature
d. ↓ in 2, 3 -DPG
Answer: a. Decrease in pH
Description:The decrease in pH (increase in acidity) causes the hemoglobin dissociation curve to shift to the right. This phenomenon is known as the Bohr effect. When the pH decreases, it indicates a more acidic environment, such as in tissues with high metabolic activity or during exercise. In this acidic environment, hemoglobin has a reduced affinity for oxygen, causing it to release oxygen more readily to the surrounding tissues. As a result, the hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right, indicating a lower affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. The other options mentioned in your question, including an increase in pH, decrease in temperature, and a decrease in 2,3-DPG (diphosphoglycerate), would actually cause the hemoglobin dissociation curve to shift to the left, indicating a higher affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
5. A pulse oximeter continuously measures the levels of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the:
a. Venous blood
b. Arterial blood
c. Alveolar capillaries
d. Peripheral veins
Answer: b. Arterial blood
Description:A pulse oximeter is a medical device that measures the oxygen saturation level of hemoglobin in the blood. It does so by emitting light of different wavelengths into the body and measuring the amount of light that is absorbed by the blood. Oxygen saturation refers to the percentage of hemoglobin that is carrying oxygen in relation to the total hemoglobin available. In the human body, oxygen is primarily transported by red blood cells, which contain hemoglobin. Arterial blood carries oxygen-rich blood away from the heart to the body's tissues, while venous blood carries oxygen-poor blood back to the heart. Oxygen saturation is typically measured in arterial blood because it represents the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood that is being delivered to the tissues. Pulse oximeters are commonly used in medical settings, such as hospitals and clinics, to monitor a patient's oxygen levels during procedures, surgeries, or in cases of respiratory distress. They are also available for home use in certain situations, such as monitoring oxygen levels in patients with chronic respiratory conditions.
6. Which among the following lab findings is expected in a patient with deficiency of Von Willebrand factor?
a. Increased PT, increased a PTT.
b. Decreased PT, decreased apTT
c. Decreased PT, decreased aPTT
d. Normal PT, increased aPTT
Answer: d. Normal PT, increased aPTT
Description:Von Willebrand factor (VWF) is a glycoprotein that plays a crucial role in platelet adhesion and clotting factor VIII stabilization. Deficiency of Von Willebrand factor results in a bleeding disorder known as Von Willebrand disease (VWD). In VWD, the most common laboratory finding is an increased activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) due to impaired platelet function and decreased levels of factor VIII, which is stabilized by VWF. However, the prothrombin time (PT), which assesses the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, is usually unaffected in Von Willebrand disease. Therefore, in a patient with Von Willebrand factor deficiency, the expected lab findings would be a normal PT and an increased aPTT.
7. The nurse is caring for a client who had a splenectomy. In the immediate postoperative period, for which complication should the nurse specifically assess int his client?
a. Infection
b. Peritonitis
c. intestinal obstruction
d. Abdominal distention
Answer: d. Abdominal distention
Description:As splenectomy is a procedure that involves surgical removal of spleen and through a person can survive without it but as its function is to filter blood as part of immune system, the immunity is highly compromised, making the patient more vulnerable to infections. Though overwhelming post splenectomy infection is common. It is considered to be a long-term complication. In a immediate postoperative client with splenectomy, assessment for abdominal distention is more important
8. During the time of any infection what will happen to he WBC count?
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Remain unchanged
d. Fluctuating
Answer: a. Increased
Description:During an infection, it is common for the white blood cell (WBC) count to increase. White blood cells are a crucial part of the immune system and play a significant role in fighting off infections. When the body detects an infection, it stimulates the production and release of more white blood cells, particularly neutrophils and lymphocytes, which are involved in the immune response. The increase in white blood cells is known as leukocytosis, and it is a typical response to infections. The elevated WBC count helps to enhance the body's defense mechanisms by increasing the number of cells available to combat the infection. This increase in WBC count can be observed in blood tests, specifically in the white blood cell differential count. It's important to note that while an increased WBC count is a common response to infection, it is not specific to infections alone. Other factors such as inflammation, trauma, stress, and certain medications can also cause an increase in WBC count. Therefore, a high WBC count should be evaluated in conjunction with other clinical findings to determine the underlying cause.
9. The cells involved in inflammatory reactions are called:
a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Basophils
d. All of these
Answer: c. Basophils
Description:Blood cells involved in inflammatory reaction are Basophils, which are granulocyte type of WBCs. When basophils are encountered with allergic they release histamine which causes increased blood flow to damaged tissues, resulting in swelling and inflammation.
10. Eosinophilia causes all; EXCEPT:
a. Allergic disorders
b. Psoriasis
c. Atopic dermatitis
d. Asthma
Answer: b. Psoriasis
Description:Eosinophilia is a condition characterized by an increased number of eosinophils, a type of white blood cell, in the blood or tissues. Eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions and the immune response against parasites. Eosinophilia is commonly associated with allergic disorders, atopic dermatitis, and asthma, as these conditions involve an immune response and inflammation. However, eosinophilia is not typically associated with psoriasis. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune skin disorder characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin. While psoriasis does involve inflammation, it is primarily mediated by other immune cells, such as T cells and neutrophils, rather than eosinophils.
11. Bone marrow aspiration site is:
a. Sternum
b. Posterior superior lilac spin
c. Lumbar vertebrae
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:The bone marrow aspiration site can indeed be any of the options listed. Bone marrow aspiration is a medical procedure in which a small sample of bone marrow is collected for examination. It can be performed from multiple sites in the body, depending on the purpose of the procedure and the patient's specific condition. The sternum (breastbone) is a common site for bone marrow aspiration, especially in adults. The posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS), which is located on the back of the hip bone, is another frequently used site. The lumbar vertebrae (lower back) can also be used for bone marrow aspiration.
12. The preferred site for bone marrow biopsy in adult is:
a. Posterior iliac crest
b. Anterior iliac crest
c. Lumbar spinous process
d. All of these
Answer: a. Posterior iliac crest
Description:The preferred site for a bone marrow biopsy in adults is the posterior iliac crest. This location is commonly chosen because the iliac crest provides easy access to the bone marrow and is relatively accessible and less prone to complications compared to other sites.
13. Site for bone marrow biopsy in an infant is:
a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Femur
d. Iliac crest
Answer: d. Iliac crest
Description:In infants, the most common site for bone marrow biopsy is the iliac crest, which is located in the hip region. The iliac crest provides easy access to the bone marrow, and the procedure is typically performed under sedation or anesthesia to minimize discomfort for the infant. While bone marrow biopsies can technically be performed at other sites like the tibia, fibula, or femur, the iliac crest is generally preferred due to its accessibility and larger size, which allows for an easier and safer procedure in infants.
14. Complications of bone marrow aspiration include:
a. Local infections
b. Bleeding and discomfort at the biopsy site
c. Sternal plate puncture
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:a. Local infections: There is a risk of infection at the biopsy site, which can occur due to bacteria entering the skin during the procedure. This risk is generally low but can be minimized by maintaining proper sterile techniques during the procedure. b. Bleeding and discomfort at the biopsy site: Bone marrow aspiration involves inserting a needle into the bone, which can cause bleeding and discomfort at the site. This is a common complication and typically resolves on its own or with minimal intervention. c. Sternal plate puncture: In rare cases, during a sternal bone marrow aspiration, the needle may inadvertently puncture the sternum's thin outer plate. This can lead to complications such as localized pain, hematoma formation, or rarely, fracture. However, this complication is relatively uncommon. It's important to note that while these complications can occur, bone marrow aspiration is generally a safe procedure when performed by trained healthcare professionals following proper protocols and precautions.
15. Nursing intervention for a client who is having procedural anxiety related to bone marrow bipsy and aspiration is:
a. Restrain the patient
b. Administer GA
c. Teach relaxation techniques
d. Postpone the procedure
Answer: c. Teach relaxation techniques
Description:The nursing intervention for a client experiencing procedural anxiety related to a bone marrow biopsy and aspiration would be to teach relaxation techniques (option c). This approach aims to reduce the client's anxiety and promote a sense of calmness before and during the procedure. Some relaxation techniques that can be taught include deep breathing exercises, guided imagery, progressive muscle relaxation, and distraction techniques. These methods can help the client cope with their anxiety and minimize discomfort during the procedure. It is important for the nurse to provide support, reassurance, and education to the client to alleviate their fears and increase their confidence in managing the procedure. Options a, b, and d are not appropriate nursing interventions for addressing anxiety in this scenario.
16. Nursing care following bone marrow biopsy and aspiration include:
a. Give pain killers
b. Pressure dressing
c. Look for bleeding and monitor vitals
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:Nursing care following a bone marrow biopsy and aspiration typically includes all of the options mentioned: a. Giving painkillers to manage any discomfort or pain experienced by the patient. b. Applying a pressure dressing to the biopsy site to control bleeding and promote clotting. c. Monitoring for any signs of bleeding, such as oozing or excessive drainage, and regularly assessing the patient's vital signs (such as heart rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation) to detect any changes that may indicate complications. It is important for the nursing staff to provide appropriate pain management, ensure the biopsy site is well-controlled, and closely monitor the patient's condition to ensure a safe and smooth recovery.
17. The confirmative test for the diagnosis of multiple myeloma is:
a. Bone marrow biopsy
b. Differential count of WBC
c. Serum calcium
d. PET
Answer: a. Bone marrow biopsy
Description:Blood test, urine test, X-rays, PET, CT scans and MRI are useful in diagnosis of multiple myeloma but the definitive confirmation of multiple myeloma can be made only through a bone marrow biopsy.
18. Which of the following actions should be nurse prioritize when taking care of a patient with a platelet count of 23, 000/- mm?
a. Request an order for an anticoagulant
b. Protect the patient from injury
c. Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids
d. No action is necessary
Answer: b. Protect the patient from injury
Description:The normal value of platelets is 150,000-400.000/mm3. In the above-mentioned situation, the number of platelets is 23,000/ mm3, therefore, such patients are at risk of uncontrolled bleeding if injured. So, the priority nursing intervention would be to protect the patient from injury.
19. Which of the following is affected by platelet count?
a. Bleeding time
b. Thrombin time
c. Prothrombin time
d. Partial thromboplastin time
Answer: a. Bleeding time
Description:Platelets play a crucial role in the formation of blood clots to prevent excessive bleeding. A low platelet count, also known as thrombocytopenia, can lead to prolonged bleeding time. Platelets aggregate at the site of a blood vessel injury to form a plug, which helps stop bleeding. If the platelet count is low, the formation of this plug may be compromised, resulting in prolonged bleeding time. Thrombin time (b), prothrombin time (c), and partial thromboplastin time (d) are tests used to assess different aspects of the clotting process. These tests primarily evaluate the functionality of various clotting factors, such as fibrinogen and prothrombin, rather than platelet count. However, it's important to note that platelet function can indirectly affect the clotting process, as platelets are involved in the clot formation cascade. Nonetheless, the direct impact on these specific clotting tests is not as significant as the effect on bleeding time.
20. Which test helps us to assess the platelet function?
a. PT
b. aPTT
c. C-reactive protein
d. Bleeding time
Answer: d. Bleeding time
Description:Bleeding time is a test used to assess the platelet function. It measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a standardized skin incision. This test evaluates the primary hemostasis, which involves platelet adhesion, activation, and aggregation to form a platelet plug. The other options mentioned are not specific tests for platelet function: a. PT (Prothrombin Time) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to evaluate the activity of the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. b. aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to assess the activity of the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. c. C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and is not directly related to platelet function.
21. Bleeding time range using Duke-method is:
a. 30 sec-1 min
b. 0-1 min
c. 1-3 min
d. 2-5 min
Answer: c. 1-3 min
Description:There are two methods of bleeding time assessment • Normal range in Duke method is 1-3 m. • Normal range in Ivy method is 2-9 m.
22. Clotting time range is:
a. 30 sec-1 minute
b. 0-1 minutes
c. 1-3 minutes
d. 2-6 minutes
Answer: d. 2-6 minutes
Description:The clotting time range is typically considered to be between 2 and 6 minutes.
23. Prolonged prothrombin time (PT) can be seen is all; EXCEPT:
a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
b. Warfarin therapy
c. Low level of vitamin K
d. Defective factor VIII
Answer: d. Defective factor VIII
Description:Prothrombin time (PT) is prolonged is Liver disease, vitamin K insufficiency decreased or defective factor, I, II, V, VII or X chronic low grad disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), anticoagulation drug (warfarin) therapy. PT is normal in decreased or defective factor VIII, IX, XI, or XII, von Willebrand disease (severe type), presence of lupus anticoagulant, autoantibody against a specific factor (e.g., factor VIII)
24. Iron chelating agent is:
a. Charcoal
b. Deferoxamine
c. Calcium gluconate
d. Alum
Answer: b. Deferoxamine
Description:An iron chelating agent is a substance that forms stable complexes with iron ions, effectively binding and removing excess iron from the body. Deferoxamine is a commonly used iron chelator in medical settings. It is used to treat iron overload conditions, such as thalassemia and hemochromatosis, where there is an excessive accumulation of iron in the body. Charcoal (option a) is not an iron chelating agent. It is primarily used for its adsorptive properties, where it can bind to and remove certain toxins and chemicals from the gastrointestinal tract. Calcium gluconate (option c) is not an iron chelating agent either. It is a form of calcium supplement used to treat calcium deficiencies or as an antidote for certain types of poisoning, such as from fluoride or oxalate. Alum (option d) is also not an iron chelating agent. It is a compound containing aluminum and is commonly used in various industrial and household applications, such as in water treatment, baking, and pickling. It does not have specific iron-chelating properties.
25. Blood cell decreased in case of anemia is:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Leukocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Answer: a. Erythrocytes
Description:The correct answer is a. Erythrocytes. Anemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells (erythrocytes) or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen to various tissues and organs in the body. When their numbers or hemoglobin levels are reduced, it can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Lymphocytes, leukocytes (white blood cells), and thrombocytes (platelets) are not primarily affected in cases of anemia. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response, leukocytes are the general term for white blood cells that help fight infections, and thrombocytes are responsible for blood clotting. While anemia may sometimes be associated with changes in these cell types, the primary hallmark of anemia is a decrease in erythrocytes.
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