NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ SET 10
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1. Characteristic of wet gangrene is:
Venous obstruction is there.
It is invariably followed by bacterial infection.
It is most commonly seen in the bowel.
All of the above
Answer: All of the above
Description:Wet gangrene is a form of gangrene that occurs when tissues become infected by bacteria and there is impaired blood flow, usually due to venous obstruction. The infected tissue becomes swollen, discolored, and emits a foul odor due to the presence of bacteria. Wet gangrene is often seen in areas such as the bowel, lungs, and extremities.
2. Dry gangrene most commonly affects the
Bowel
Limbs
Lungs
Cervix
Answer: Limbs
Description:Yes, dry gangrene most commonly affects the limbs. It occurs when there is a loss of blood supply to a part of the body, usually due to underlying health conditions such as diabetes or peripheral artery disease. The affected tissue becomes dry, shrinks, and turns black, and may eventually fall off. Other areas of the body such as the bowel, lungs, and cervix can also be affected by gangrene, but this is less common than in the limbs.
3. Dry gangrene commonly occurs due to
Blockage of the venous supply
Arterial occlusion
Excessive blood supply to the limbs
Blockage of arterial supply
Answer: Arterial occlusion
Description:Dry gangrene commonly occurs due to arterial occlusion. Arterial occlusion results in a lack of oxygen and nutrients to the affected tissues, leading to their death and subsequent dry gangrene. Venous occlusion can also cause gangrene, but it typically leads to wet gangrene, which is characterized by a buildup of fluid and bacterial infection in the affected area. Excessive blood supply to the limbs is not a cause of gangrene.
4. Meleney’s synergistic gangrene is caused by:
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus aureus.
Streptococcus anginous
Streptococcus bovis.
Answer: Streptococcus aureus.
Description:Meleney’s synergistic gangrene, also known as synergistic necrotizing cellulitis, is a rare type of infection that affects the skin and soft tissues. It is typically caused by a combination of bacteria rather than a single organism. The most common bacteria associated with Meleney’s synergistic gangrene include group A streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes) and Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria such as anaerobes may also be involved. Therefore, the correct answer would be a. Staphylococcus aureus and b. Streptococcus pyogenes
5. Which of the following condition may lead to dry gangrene?
Bueger’s disease
Diabetic foot ulcer
Bed sore.
None of the above.
Answer: Bueger’s disease
Description:All of the given conditions may lead to dry gangrene, as they all can cause a decrease in blood flow to the affected area, leading to tissue death. Buerger's disease is a condition that affects the blood vessels in the hands and feet, leading to blockages and decreased blood flow. Diabetic foot ulcers can occur due to nerve damage and poor blood flow in people with diabetes, which can eventually lead to dry gangrene. Bed sores, also known as pressure ulcers, can occur in people who are bedridden or immobile for extended periods, leading to tissue damage and decreased blood flow.
6. Which of the following type of gangrene affects the genital region of the body?
Wet gangrene
Dry gangrene
Fournier’s gangrene
Meleney’s gangrene
Answer: Fournier’s gangrene
Description:Correct, Fournier's gangrene is a type of gangrene that affects the genital region of the body. It is a type of necrotizing fasciitis that affects the perineum, genitals, and sometimes the abdominal wall. Wet gangrene and dry gangrene can occur in other parts of the body, but not specifically in the genital region. Meleney's gangrene is also a type of necrotizing fasciitis, but it typically affects the trunk, extremities, or surgical wounds.
7. All of the following scales are used to asses risk for pressures sore in patients; EXCEPT:
Waterlow scale
Broset scale
Norton scale
Braden’s scale
Answer: Broset scale
Description:That is correct. The Broset scale is not used to assess the risk for pressure sores in patients. The Waterlow, Norton, and Braden's scales are commonly used for this purpose. The Waterlow scale is widely used in the UK, the Norton scale is widely used in the US, and the Braden's scale is used internationally.
8. The Braden scale score of a client is 16. Most appropriate nursing action is:
Change position every 2 hours
High fowlers position
Apply moisturizer on the affected skin
Administer oxygen via mask
Answer: Change position every 2 hours
Description:The Braden Scale is a tool used to assess a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers. A score of 16 indicates a moderate risk. The most appropriate nursing action for a patient with a moderate risk of pressure ulcers is to change the patient's position every 2 hours. This helps to relieve pressure on the skin and prevent the development of pressure ulcers. Option b, High fowlers position, may be appropriate for certain conditions such as respiratory distress, but it is not the most appropriate nursing action for a patient with a moderate risk of pressure ulcers. Option c, Apply moisturizer on the affected skin, may be appropriate for patients with dry or irritated skin, but it does not address the risk of pressure ulcers. Option d, Administer oxygen via mask, is not related to the management of pressure ulcers and is not the most appropriate nursing action for a patient with a moderate risk of pressure ulcers.
9. Decubitus ulcer on scapula measure 1x2x0.8 cm and pink subcutaneous tissue is completely visible on the wound bed identify the stage
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
Answer: Stage IV
Description:Based on the description provided, the decubitus ulcer on the scapula measuring 1x2x0.8 cm with pink subcutaneous tissue completely visible on the wound bed is likely to be a Stage IV pressure ulcer. Stage IV pressure ulcers are characterized by extensive tissue damage, often involving muscle, bone, and supporting structures. These ulcers may present as deep craters with a necrotic base and can be very difficult to treat. The presence of visible subcutaneous tissue indicates that the ulcer has penetrated through the skin and is now affecting deeper structures. It is important to note that an accurate diagnosis of the stage of a pressure ulcer can only be made by a qualified healthcare professional who has evaluated the wound in person.
10. Plasma cells are formed from:
T cells
B cells
RBC
WBC
Answer: B cells
Description:Correct, plasma cells are formed from B cells. When B cells encounter an antigen, they differentiate into plasma cells, which produce and secrete large amounts of antibodies specific to that antigen.
11. How to palpate lymph node?
With pressure and tip of fingers
Apply pressure with palpating the lymph nodes.
Palpate superficial lymph nodes with the pads of the fingers.
Use palm of hand while palpating the lymph nodes.
Answer: Palpate superficial lymph nodes with the pads of the fingers.
Description: Palpate superficial lymph nodes with the pads of the fingers. When palpating lymph nodes, it is important to use the pads of the fingers (not the tips or the palm) to detect any abnormalities in size, shape, consistency, and tenderness. The lymph nodes should be palpated with gentle pressure in a circular motion, and any changes from normal should be noted and reported. It is also important to palpate both sides of the body and compare the lymph nodes to determine if there are any asymmetries or differences between them.
12. When B-cell is exposed to an antigen for the first time:
The primary response occurs.
The primary response takes 1-3 hours to become effective.
The B-Cell divides to form plasma cells and T-helper cells.
The B-memory cells produce antibodies.
Answer: The primary response occurs.
Description:The correct answer is a. When a B-cell is exposed to an antigen for the first time, the primary response occurs. During the primary response, the B-cell recognizes the antigen and undergoes clonal expansion, dividing into a large number of identical cells. Some of these cells differentiate into plasma cells, which secrete large amounts of antibodies specific to the antigen. Other cells differentiate into memory B-cells, which are able to quickly respond to subsequent exposures to the same antigen. The primary response typically takes several days to become effective, rather than 1-3 hours as mentioned in option b. Option c is partially correct, as B-cells do divide to form plasma cells, but they do not form T-helper cells. Option d is incorrect, as memory B-cells do not produce antibodies during the primary response.
13. Humoral immunity is provided by:
T-lymphocytes
B-lymphocytes
Immunoglobulin
Interferon
Answer: B-lymphocytes
Description:Humoral immunity is primarily provided by B-lymphocytes and their secreted products, which include immunoglobulins or antibodies. Therefore, the correct answer is b. B-lymphocytes. T-lymphocytes, on the other hand, provide cellular immunity by directly attacking and destroying infected cells. Interferons are a group of proteins that play a role in innate immunity by interfering with viral replication and activating immune cells.
14. Humoral immunity is also known as:
Cell mediated.
Antibody mediated.
Natural
Interferon mediated.
Answer: Antibody mediated.
Description:Correct, humoral immunity is also known as antibody-mediated immunity. This type of immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells to fight off foreign pathogens such as viruses and bacteria.
15. T cell immunity is:
Cell mediated.
Antibody mediated.
Natural.
Interferon mediated.
Answer: Cell mediated.
Description:T cell immunity is cell mediated. T cells, a type of white blood cell, are responsible for cell-mediated immunity, which involves the recognition and destruction of cells that have become infected with viruses or other intracellular pathogens. T cells also play a role in coordinating the immune response by activating and directing other immune cells. Antibody-mediated immunity, on the other hand, involves the production of antibodies by B cells and does not involve T cells directly. Natural immunity refers to immunity that is present without any deliberate intervention, such as immunity acquired through infection or vaccination. Interferons are signaling proteins that are produced in response to viral infections and play a role in activating immune cells, but they are not directly responsible for T cell-mediated immunity.
16. Vaccination provides………. immunity.
Natural active
Natural passive
Active artificial
Passive artificial
Answer: Active artificial
Description:The correct answer is. Active artificial immunity. Vaccination is a process of introducing a weakened or inactivated pathogen or its antigen into the body to stimulate an immune response. This results in the production of antibodies and memory cells that provide protection against future infections from the pathogen. This type of immunity is called active artificial immunity, as it is produced as a result of deliberate exposure to the antigen. Natural active immunity occurs when a person is exposed to a live pathogen and develops an immune response, while natural passive immunity occurs when a person receives pre-formed antibodies from another source, such as a mother's breast milk or through placental transfer. Passive artificial immunity is the temporary immunity that results from the administration of pre-formed antibodies, such as in the case of immunoglobulin therapy.
17. Type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs during transfusion and erythroblastosis fetalis are
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Answer: Type II
Description:Type II hypersensitivity reaction occurs during transfusion and erythroblastosis fetalis. Type II hypersensitivity is also known as antibody-mediated cytotoxicity. In this type of reaction, antibodies produced by the immune system bind to antigens on the surface of cells, leading to their destruction by other immune cells. In the case of transfusion reactions, this occurs when a person receives blood that has antigens on the red blood cells that their immune system recognizes as foreign. The immune system then produces antibodies that attack the foreign antigens on the transfused red blood cells, leading to their destruction and potentially causing a range of symptoms from mild to severe. Similarly, in erythroblastosis fetalis, a type II hypersensitivity reaction occurs when the mother's immune system produces antibodies against antigens on the red blood cells of the developing fetus. This can lead to destruction of the fetal red blood cells, causing anemia, jaundice, and potentially serious complications. Type I hypersensitivity reactions, also known as immediate hypersensitivity or allergic reactions, involve the release of histamine and other mediators in response to an allergen. Type III hypersensitivity reactions involve the formation of immune complexes that can cause tissue damage, while Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed and involve activation of T cells.
18. Lifelong immunity developed after the occurrence of disease is known as:
Natural passive immunity
Artificial passive immunity
Natural active immunity
Artificial active immunity.
Answer: Natural active immunity
Description:The correct answer is. Natural active immunity refers to the development of immunity to a particular disease after being infected with that disease. This immunity can last for a long time, often for the rest of a person's life, providing protection against future infections.
19. Cell mediated immunity is carried out by:
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Monocytes
CD4 cells.
Answer: T lymphocytes
Description:Cell mediated immunity is carried out by T lymphocytes.
20. Which of the following type of hypersensitivity is known as delayed type hypersensitivity is known as delayed type hypersensitivity and is carried out by T-lymphocytes?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Answer: Type IV
Description:Correct, Type IV hypersensitivity is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) or delayed hypersensitivity reaction. This type of hypersensitivity involves the activation of T-lymphocytes and occurs 24-72 hours after exposure to an antigen. It is involved in the pathogenesis of several autoimmune diseases, allergic reactions, and some infections. Examples of delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions include contact dermatitis, tuberculin skin test, and transplant rejection.
21. Identify the correct statement related to type I hypersensitivity:
Immunoglobulin responsible for type I hypersensitivity reaction is IgE.
Mast cells are important cells in type I hypersensitivity.
Immunoglobulin responsible for type I hypersensitivity
Both A and B
Answer: Both A and B
Description:Correct, both statements A and B are true. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is the antibody responsible for initiating the type I hypersensitivity reaction, and mast cells are important cells involved in the response.
22. During blood transfusion therapy, patients developed wheezing and her skin becomes flushed with hives. These are the characteristics of:
Hemolytic reaction.
Allergic reaction
Transfusion reaction
Thrombotic crisis
Answer: Allergic reaction
Description:During blood transfusion therapy, patients developed wheezing and her skin becomes flushed with hives. These are the characteristics of
23. Identify the transfusion reactions among the following:
Hemolytic transfusion reactions-immediate or delayed
Infections.
Allergic reactions
All of the above
Answer: All of the above
Description:Hemolytic transfusion reactions can occur immediately or be delayed and result from an immune response to transfused red blood cells. Infections can occur from contaminated blood products or from transmission of infectious agents from the donor to the recipient. Allergic reactions can also occur due to sensitivity to the transfused blood products, and these reactions can range from mild to severe, including anaphylaxis.
24. Identify autoimmune disease among the following:
SLE
Grave’s disease
Myasthenia gravis
All of the above
Answer: All of the above
Description:All of the above conditions are autoimmune diseases. a. SLE (Systemic Lupus Erythematosus) is an autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body, causing symptoms such as joint pain, skin rashes, and fatigue. b. Grave's disease is an autoimmune disorder that causes overactivity of the thyroid gland, resulting in hyperthyroidism. It can cause symptoms such as weight loss, tremors, and anxiety. c. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that affects the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. It can affect various muscles in the body, including those responsible for breathing and swallowing. All of these conditions involve the immune system attacking the body's own tissues, which is the hallmark of autoimmune diseases.
25. HLA elevates in condition.
Congenital malformation
Malignant tumor
Hepatic disorders
Autoimmune disorders.
Answer: Autoimmune disorders.
Description:HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) elevation can be seen in various conditions, including congenital malformations, autoimmune disorders, and some hepatic disorders. However, HLA elevation is not a reliable indicator of malignant tumors.
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