NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00116
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1. What is the site of surgery in transsphenoidal approach?
a. Above the tentorium
b. Below the brain stem
c. Sella turcica
d. None of these
Answer: c. Sella turcica
Description:The transsphenoidal approach is a surgical technique used to access the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain within a depression called the "sella turcica." This approach involves making an incision through the sphenoid sinus, a hollow space located behind the nasal passages, to reach the pituitary gland. It is a less invasive way to access and treat pituitary tumors or other abnormalities in the sella turcica region compared to traditional open brain surgery. Option c (Sella turcica) is the correct site of surgery in the transsphenoidal approach. Options a, b, and d are incorrect in this context.
2. Which of the following is cranial surgery approach?
a. Supratentorial
b. Infratentorial
c. Transsphenoidal approach
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:Supratentorial approaches are used to access lesions in the upper part of the brain, such as the frontal lobe, parietal lobe, and temporal lobe. Infratentorial approaches are used to access lesions in the lower part of the brain, such as the cerebellum, brainstem, and posterior fossa. Transsphenoidal approaches are used to access lesions in the pituitary gland and sella turcica, which is a bony cavity in the sphenoid bone at the base of the skull. All of these approaches are used to treat a variety of conditions, including tumors, aneurysms, and vascular malformations. The specific approach that is used will depend on the location of the lesion and the surgeon's preference.
3. After cranial surgery, the nurse should assess the client for any CSF leakage is present or not. Which of the following characteristics of CSF would assist in differentiation of CSF and mucus?
a. CSF contains glucose
b. CSF is vicious and dark fluid
c. Mucus contains glucose
d. Mucus contains protein
Answer: a. CSF contains glucose
Description:After a client undergoes cranial surgery with a supratentorial cranial approach, the post-operative positioning may involve placing the client in both of the following positions: a. On the back side: Placing the client on their back, which is a common post-operative position for various surgeries, including cranial surgery. b. On the non-operative side: Turning the client to their non-operative side can also be recommended in some cases to help reduce pressure on the surgical site and prevent potential complications. It's important to note that the specific post-operative positioning may vary depending on the surgeon's instructions, the client's condition, and the type of cranial surgery performed. Always follow the healthcare provider's guidance and individualized care plan for the best recovery outcome.
4. What is the post operative position for a client who had cranial surgery with supratentorial cranial approach?
a. On the back side
b. On the non-operative side
c. On the operative side
d. Both a and b
Answer: d. Both a and b
Description:Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing protection and nourishment to the central nervous system. One of the key characteristics that can assist in differentiating CSF from mucus is the presence of glucose. CSF contains glucose, whereas mucus does not typically contain glucose. CSF leakage after cranial surgery can be a concerning complication, and it is important for the nurse to be able to identify and differentiate CSF from other fluids that may be present, such as mucus. Assessing the fluid for the presence of glucose is one way to help determine whether it is CSF or another substance like mucus. If CSF leakage is suspected, it should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for appropriate management and intervention.
5. What is the preferred post-operative position for a client who had cranial surgery with infratentorial cranial approach?
a. Head of the bed flat
b. Fowlers position
c. Prone position
d. Low-fowlers position
Answer: a. Head of the bed flat
Description:Head of the bed flat. The preferred post-operative position for a client who had cranial surgery with infratentorial cranial approach is the head of the bed flat. This position helps to reduce the risk of bleeding and swelling in the brain. The client should also avoid bending or twisting their neck, as this can also increase the risk of bleeding. The other positions listed are not as ideal for post-operative clients who have had infratentorial cranial surgery. Fowler's position can increase the risk of bleeding and swelling, while the prone position can put pressure on the back of the head and neck. Low-fowlers position is a compromise between Fowler's position and flat position, but it is still not as ideal as flat position. It is important to follow the instructions of your doctor or nurse after cranial surgery. They will be able to provide you with specific instructions for your individual situation.
6. Neurological manifestation of Whipple’s disease is:
a. Encephalopathy
b. Cerebellar ataxia
c. Focal neurological deficits
d. Seizures.
Answer: d. Seizures.
Description:Neurological manifestations of Whipple's disease can include seizures. Whipple's disease is a rare systemic infectious disorder caused by the bacterium Tropheryma whipplei. It primarily affects the small intestine but can also involve other organs, including the central nervous system (CNS). When the CNS is affected, it can lead to various neurological symptoms, and seizures are one of the possible manifestations. Other neurological symptoms associated with Whipple's disease may include cognitive changes, oculomasticatory myorhythmia (a specific movement disorder), altered mental status, and other focal neurological deficits. However, among the given options, seizures are the most directly associated with the neurological manifestation of Whipple's disease.
7. A 23-year-old cline tis admitted with tonic-clonic seizure. The nurse knows that the most common cause of tonic-clonic seizures for this age group is:
a. Stroke
b. Electrolyte imbalance
c. Head trauma
d. Congenital defect in brain
Answer: c. Head trauma
Description:Head injury is the most commonly known cause in young adults. For middle-age individuals, strokes, tumors and injuries are more frequent catalysts. In people age 65 and older, stroke is the most common known cause, followed by degenerative conditions such as Alzheimer's disease. Often, seizures do not begin immediately after a person has an injury to the brain. Instead, a seizures may occur many months later.
8. Which of the following action is contraindicated in epileptic patient?
a. Loosen the clothes
b. Restrain client’s limb
c. Raising padded side rails.
d. Give side lying position
Answer: b. Restrain client’s limb
Description:Limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause harm.
9. Which of the following is not a triggering factor for seizures and epilepsies?
a. Acute alcohol ingestion
b. Exposure to flashing lights
c. Hyperventilation
d. Decreased physical activity
Answer: d. Decreased physical activity
Description:Alcohol intake or drug use, exposure to flashing light, hyperventilation, non-compliance to medication and sleep deprivation are common triggers for seizures, whereas decreased physical activity is a positive activity that usually do no trigger seizures.
10. What should the nurse do first when a male client is having a tonic-clonic seizures?
a. Restrain the client’s arms and legs
b. Elevate the head of the bed.
c. Place a tongue blade in the client’s mouth
d. Take measure to prevent injury
Answer: d. Take measure to prevent injury
Description:If any person is experiencing tonic clonic seizure most appropriate nursing intervention is to ensure measure to prevent injury.
11. Which of the following diagnostic investigations is useful to detect seizures?
a. CT scan
b. EEG
c. MRT scan
d. X-ray
Answer: b. EEG
Description:Electroencephalography (EEG) is a test that detects electrical activity of the brain through electrodes attached to scalp. EEG is most often used to diagnose epilepsy, which causes obvious abnormalities in EEG reading.
12. Which action should the nurse implement to prevent aspirations in patient who is experiencing seizures in bed?
a. Elevate the head
b. Loose restrictive clothing
c. Position the client on the side with head flexed forward
d. Use tongue depressor between teeth.
Answer: c. Position the client on the side with head flexed forward
Description:Position patient in side lateral position prevent aspiration. Other interventions also useful in the management of patient with seizures but does not prevent aspiration.
13. Mr. Santosh 18 years-old students, is admitted to the ward with a diagnosis of epilepsy. He tells the nurse that he is experiencing a generalized tingling sensation and Smell of roses. These complaints indicate.
a. Acute neuritis
b. Acute cerebrovascular accident.
c. An aura
d. An olfactory hallucination
Answer: c. An aura
Description:An aura is a sensory disturbance that occurs before a seizure. It can be visual, auditory, olfactory, gustatory, or tactile. In Mr. Santosh's case, the tingling sensation and smell of roses are both olfactory auras. Olfactory auras are the least common type of aura, but they are often associated with temporal lobe seizures. Acute neuritis is inflammation of a nerve. It can cause numbness, tingling, and pain. However, it does not typically cause olfactory hallucinations. Acute cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is a sudden interruption of blood flow to the brain. It can cause a variety of symptoms, including weakness, numbness, paralysis, and speech problems. However, it does not typically cause olfactory hallucinations. Olfactory hallucinations are a type of hallucination that involves the sense of smell. They can be caused by a variety of factors, including epilepsy, temporal lobe seizures, and brain tumors. However, they are not typically caused by acute neuritis or acute CVA. Therefore, the most likely explanation for Mr. Santosh's complaints is that he is experiencing an aura. The nurse should monitor him closely for further symptoms of a seizure.
14. Most common type of seizure in early childhood period is:
a. Intra cranial infection
b. Febrile illness.
c. Intra cranial malignancy
d. Electrolyte imbalance.
Answer: b. Febrile illness.
Description:Febrile seizures are the most common type of seizures in early childhood, typically occurring between the ages of 6 months and 5 years. These seizures are associated with a fever, often due to an infection such as a viral or bacterial illness. Febrile seizures are usually brief, generalized (affecting the whole body), and have a low risk of causing long-term complications. It's essential for parents and caregivers to seek medical attention if a child experiences a febrile seizure to determine the underlying cause of the fever and provide appropriate treatment. Most children with febrile seizures do not go on to develop epilepsy or other seizure disorders later in life.
15. Absence seizure is treated with:
a. Clonazepam
b. Valproate
c. Phenytoin
d. Midazolam
Answer: b. Valproate
Description:Absence seizures, also known as petit mal seizures, are a type of generalized epileptic seizure that primarily affects children and adolescents. These seizures are characterized by a brief loss of awareness and staring spells. They are typically not associated with convulsions or significant movements. Valproate, also known as sodium valproate or valproic acid, is one of the most commonly used medications to treat absence seizures. It is an antiepileptic drug that helps stabilize the electrical activity in the brain, reducing the frequency and severity of absence seizures. While the other options listed (Clonazepam, Phenytoin, and Midazolam) are also antiepileptic medications, they may be more suitable for treating other types of seizures or have different indications. The choice of medication should be made by a qualified healthcare professional based on the individual patient's specific medical condition and response to treatment.
16. Complex partial seizure can be managed with:
a. Midazolam
b. Sodium valproate
c. Lorazepam
d. Carbamazepine
Answer: d. Carbamazepine
Description:Complex partial seizures, also known as focal impaired awareness seizures, are a type of epileptic seizure that starts in a specific area of the brain and can cause altered consciousness or awareness. These seizures can be managed with various antiepileptic medications, and one of the common drugs used for this type of seizure is Carbamazepine. Carbamazepine is an antiepileptic medication that helps control seizures by stabilizing the electrical activity in the brain. It is often prescribed for the treatment of complex partial seizures and other types of epilepsy. While the other options listed (Midazolam, Sodium valproate, and Lorazepam) are also antiepileptic medications, they may be more commonly used for other types of seizures or in different situations, and their suitability for managing complex partial seizures would depend on the individual patient's specific medical condition and response to treatment. The choice of medication should be made by a qualified healthcare professional based on a thorough evaluation of the patient's medical history and needs.
17. Important nursing intervention for a client having a tonic-clonic seizure?
a. Maintaining a patient airway
b. Restrain the client
c. Intubate the client
d. Insert foley’s catheter.
Answer: a. Maintaining a patient airway
Description:Maintaining a patient airway. During a tonic-clonic seizure, the client's muscles contract and relax forcefully. This can cause the tongue to block the airway, which can lead to respiratory distress or even death. The nurse should therefore take steps to maintain the client's airway, such as turning the client on their side and clearing their mouth of any secretions. Restraining the client is not necessary and can actually be harmful. Restraints can restrict the client's breathing and make it more difficult for the nurse to maintain the airway. Intubation is also not necessary unless the client is not breathing or is breathing inadequately. Foley's catheter insertion is not necessary unless the client is incontinent. Here are some other important nursing interventions for a client having a tonic-clonic seizure: Protect the client from injury. This includes removing any objects from the client's environment that could cause injury, such as furniture or sharp objects. Loosen the client's clothing. This will help to prevent the client from overheating and to make it easier for the nurse to provide care. Stay with the client until the seizure is over. This will help to ensure that the client is safe and that the seizure does not last too long. After the seizure, assess the client's condition. This includes checking the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. The nurse should also check the client for any injuries that may have occurred during the seizure. If you are caring for a client who has a tonic-clonic seizure, it is important to stay calm and to follow the appropriate nursing interventions. By doing so, you can help to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
18. Drug of choice for the status epilepticus is/are:
a. IM midazolam
b. IV lorazepam
c. IV diazepam
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:The benzodiazepines are the most effective drugs in the treatment of acute seizures and status epilepticus (SE). the benzodiazepines most commonly used to treat status epileptics are diazepam, lorazepam, and midazolam. Intravenous lorazepam or intramuscular midazolam effectively control early SE in around two thirds of patient. IV diazepam remains the drug of choice for short term control of seizures.
19. A client recalls headache and unusual sensation before seizures attack. It is known as:
a. Atonic seizures
b. Aura
c. Tonic
d. Clonic
Answer: b. Aura
Description:An aura is a distinctive warning sign or sensation that some individuals with epilepsy experience before a seizure. It can be described as a premonitory symptom or feeling that occurs before the actual seizure takes place. Auras are subjective and can vary widely from person to person, but they often involve sensations such as unusual smells, tastes, visual changes, emotions, or physical sensations like tingling, dizziness, or headache. After experiencing an aura, a person may go on to have different types of seizures, depending on their specific epilepsy syndrome. For example, some individuals may experience focal seizures (partial seizures), while others may progress to generalized seizures. It's important for individuals with epilepsy and their caregivers to be aware of any auras or warning signs, as they can be helpful in anticipating and managing seizures. Recognizing the aura can provide an opportunity for the person to seek a safe environment and receive support during and after the seizure. Additionally, it can assist healthcare professionals in diagnosing and treating epilepsy more effectively.
20. Seizure in a meningitis client can be controlled by all of the following interventions; EXCEPT:
a. Administration of phenytoin
b. Side lying position
c. Control of fever
d. Minimal environmental stimuli
Answer: b. Side lying position
Description:Side lying position. Side lying position is not an intervention that is used to control seizures in meningitis clients. The other interventions listed, administration of phenytoin, control of fever, and minimal environmental stimuli, are all effective interventions for controlling seizures in meningitis clients. Here is a brief explanation of why each of these interventions is effective: Administration of phenytoin: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can be used to control seizures. It works by suppressing the abnormal electrical activity in the brain that can cause seizures. Control of fever: Fever can increase the risk of seizures in meningitis clients. By controlling the fever, the risk of seizures can be reduced. Minimal environmental stimuli: Environmental stimuli, such as noise and bright lights, can trigger seizures in meningitis clients. By minimizing environmental stimuli, the risk of seizures can be reduced. Side lying position is not an intervention that is used to control seizures in meningitis clients. However, it is a comfortable position for clients who are experiencing seizures. It can also help to prevent aspiration, which is a risk factor for meningitis clients.
21. The eye instruction to be given to the patient and the caregiver with epilepsy is as follows; EXCEPT:
a. Take medication daily
b. Maintain medication and seizure chart.
c. Avid alcohol, smoking, hypoglycemia
d. Take showers in bathtubs.
Answer: d. Take showers in bathtubs.
Description:Taking showers in bathtub in not advised because it is a high-risk activity for a patient with epilepsy. If seizures occurs while bathing in tub then drowning can occur and client may die.
22. Drug of choice for generalized Tonic-clonic seizures (GTCS) in pregnancy is:
a. Lamotrigine
b. Valproate
c. Levetiracetam
d. CBZ
Answer: c. Levetiracetam
Description:Levetiracetam is considered the drug of choice for treating generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCS) in pregnancy. GTCS, also known as grand mal seizures, are a type of generalized seizure that involves both tonic (muscle stiffness) and clonic (rhythmic jerking) phases. During pregnancy, the safety of antiepileptic drugs is a significant concern because certain medications may pose risks to the developing fetus. Valproate (option b) is generally not recommended for pregnant women due to an increased risk of birth defects and developmental issues in the baby. Lamotrigine (option a) and carbamazepine (option d) can be used in pregnancy but have some potential risks, including a higher risk of cleft lip or palate for lamotrigine and a risk of neural tube defects for carbamazepine. Levetiracetam has been shown to have a more favorable safety profile during pregnancy, with a lower risk of major congenital malformations compared to some other antiepileptic drugs. However, it's essential for pregnant women with epilepsy to work closely with their healthcare provider to find the most appropriate and safe treatment for their individual situation. The choice of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy should always be carefully evaluated by a healthcare professional to balance the benefits of seizure control with the potential risks to the developing baby.
23. Best drug for photosensitive epilepsy:
a. Topiramate
b. Valproate
c. Zonisamide
d. Ethosuximide
Answer: b. Valproate
Description:Valproate (sodium valproate or valproic acid) is considered one of the best drugs for treating photosensitive epilepsy. Photosensitive epilepsy is a specific type of epilepsy where seizures are triggered by visual stimuli, such as flickering lights or patterns. It is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. Valproate is an antiepileptic medication that works by stabilizing the electrical activity in the brain and reducing the likelihood of seizures, including those triggered by visual stimuli. It is effective for a wide range of seizure types, including generalized and partial seizures, making it a suitable choice for managing photosensitive epilepsy. While other antiepileptic drugs like Topiramate, Zonisamide, and Ethosuximide may also be used to treat epilepsy, Valproate is specifically well-regarded for its effectiveness in photosensitive epilepsy cases. However, the choice of medication should be made by a qualified healthcare professional based on the individual patient's medical history, type of epilepsy, and response to treatment.
24. Health education to a client on phenytoin therapy include:
a. Report for blood monitoring as ordered to avoid toxicity
b. Use soft bristle brush to avoid injury to oral mucosa
c. Quit the habit of consuming alcohol
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:These are all important health education points that should be given to a client on phenytoin therapy. Report for blood monitoring as ordered to avoid toxicity: Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index, which means that there is a small difference between the effective dose and the toxic dose. Therefore, it is important to have blood levels monitored regularly to make sure that the dose is not too high. Use soft bristle brush to avoid injury to oral mucosa: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, which is a growth of the gums. This can be painful and can make it difficult to brush your teeth. Using a soft bristle brush can help to prevent injury to the gums. Quit the habit of consuming alcohol: Alcohol can interact with phenytoin and increase the risk of toxicity. Therefore, it is important to quit the habit of consuming alcohol while taking phenytoin. In addition to these points, it is also important to educate the client about the other side effects of phenytoin, such as drowsiness, dizziness, and ataxia. The client should also be aware of the signs and symptoms of phenytoin toxicity, such as nystagmus, slurred speech, and confusion. If you are taking phenytoin, it is important to talk to your doctor about the risks and benefits of the medication. They can help you to make sure that you are taking the medication safely and effectively.
25. Which among the following is correct regarding phenytoin and alcohol interaction?
a. Alcohol increases effectiveness of phenytoin activity
b. Alcohol decreases seizure threshold
c. Alcohol has no Interaction with phenytoin
d. Alcohol decreases the effectiveness of phenytoin
Answer: d. Alcohol decreases the effectiveness of phenytoin
Description:Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug used to treat seizures and epilepsy. When alcohol is consumed while taking phenytoin, it can interfere with the metabolism of the medication in the liver. Alcohol induces certain liver enzymes that break down phenytoin more rapidly, leading to decreased levels of the drug in the bloodstream. This can result in reduced effectiveness of phenytoin in controlling seizures. Additionally, alcohol itself can lower the seizure threshold, making seizures more likely to occur in some individuals. Combining alcohol with antiepileptic medications, like phenytoin, can be particularly risky for people with epilepsy, as it may increase the risk of breakthrough seizures. It's crucial for individuals taking phenytoin or any other antiepileptic medication to avoid alcohol consumption or use alcohol only under the guidance and approval of their healthcare provider. Alcohol can have significant interactions with various medications, including those used to treat epilepsy, and can potentially compromise treatment outcomes and overall safety. Always consult a healthcare professional for personalized advice regarding the use of medications and potential interactions with alcohol.
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