NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00117
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1. Common side effect of drug phenytoin is:
a. Gingival hyperplasia
b. Hirsutism
c. Cushingoid appearances
d. Bleeding gum
Answer: a. Gingival hyperplasia
Description:Maintaining a patient airway. During a tonic-clonic seizure, the client's muscles contract and relax forcefully. This can cause the tongue to block the airway, which can lead to respiratory distress or even death. The nurse should therefore take steps to maintain the client's airway, such as turning the client on their side and clearing their mouth of any secretions. Restraining the client is not necessary and can actually be harmful. Restraints can restrict the client's breathing and make it more difficult for the nurse to maintain the airway. Intubation is also not necessary unless the client is not breathing or is breathing inadequately. Foley's catheter insertion is not necessary unless the client is incontinent. Here are some other important nursing interventions for a client having a tonic-clonic seizure: Protect the client from injury. This includes removing any objects from the client's environment that could cause injury, such as furniture or sharp objects. Loosen the client's clothing. This will help to prevent the client from overheating and to make it easier for the nurse to provide care. Stay with the client until the seizure is over. This will help to ensure that the client is safe and that the seizure does not last too long. After the seizure, assess the client's condition. This includes checking the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. The nurse should also check the client for any injuries that may have occurred during the seizure. If you are caring for a client who has a tonic-clonic seizure, it is important to stay calm and to follow the appropriate nursing interventions. By doing so, you can help to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
2. Correct regarding IV phenytoin is:
a. Administer via IV push
b. Stop the drug if there is no sign and symptoms
c. Mixing the drug with saline solution only
d. Flushing the IV catheter with dextrose solution
Answer: c. Mixing the drug with saline solution only
Description:When administering IV phenytoin, it should be mixed with a compatible IV solution such as normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) and administered slowly through an IV infusion. It should not be given as an IV push (a), and it should not be stopped abruptly if there are no signs and symptoms (b) since sudden discontinuation of phenytoin can lead to seizure recurrence. Flushing the IV catheter with dextrose solution (d) is not indicated for IV phenytoin administration.
3. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes ischemic stroke?
a. AV malformation
b. Cocaine use
c. Head trauma
d. Rupture of aneurysm
Answer: b. Cocaine use
Description:Cocaine is potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction
4. Lower motor neuron lesions causes:
a. Flaccid muscle paralysis
b. Hyperactive and abnormal reflexes
c. Increased muscle tone
d. Hypertrophy of muscle
Answer: a. Flaccid muscle paralysis
Description:A lower motor neuron lesion is a lesion which affects nerve fibers traveling form the ventral horn or anterior grey column of the spinal cord to the relevant muscles. Hence, lower motor neuron lesions cause flaccid muscle paralysis, muscle atrophy, decreased muscle tone and loss of voluntary control.
5. Upper motor neuron lesions causes all; EXCEPT:
a. Flaccid muscle paralysis
b. Hyperactive reflexes
c. Spastic muscle paralysis
d. Loss of voluntary control
Answer: a. Flaccid muscle paralysis
Description:Upper motor neuron lesions do not cause muscle atrophy but do cause loss of voluntary control
6. Leading cause of cerebrovascular accident (C.V.A) is
a. Embolism
b. Hypertension
c. Aneurysm
d. Blunt trauma
Answer: a. Embolism
Description:Cerebrovascular accident is also known as stroke. The three main types of stroke are Ischemic stroke, hemorrhage stroke and transient ischemic attack (mini stroke). More than 80% of strokes are ischemic strokes. An ischemic stroke happens when blood flow through the artery the supplies oxygen-rich blood to the brain becomes blocked. Blood clots (emboli) often cause the blockages that lead to ischemic strokes.
7. Which among the following client is at maximum risk for stroke?
a. Obsess 45-year-old man
b. 35-year-old men with alcohol intake
c. 32-year-old woman with DM
d. 65-year-old man with hypertension.
Answer: d. 65-year-old man with hypertension.
Description:Among the options given, the 65-year-old man with hypertension (high blood pressure) is at the maximum risk for stroke. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for stroke, and as age increases, the risk of stroke also tends to increase. The combination of advanced age and hypertension places him at the highest risk compared to the other options. While the other options may have some risk factors (e.g., alcohol intake, diabetes, obesity), hypertension remains a more potent and consistent risk factor for stroke. It is crucial to manage hypertension effectively to reduce the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular complications.
8. A client is admitted with thrombotic cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following is the priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission?
a. Bowel sounds
b. Electroencephalogram
c. Electromyogram
d. Pupil size and pupillary response
Answer: d. Pupil size and pupillary response
Description:Pupil size and pupillary response indicate changes around the cranial nerves. In the first 24 hours, it is vital to monitor for pupil size and response.
9. Hemiplegia involves:
a. Paresis of both lower extremities
b. Paralysis of one side of the body
c. Paralysis of both lower extremities
d. Paresis of upper and lower extremities
Answer: b. Paralysis of one side of the body
Description:Paralysis of one side of the body. Hemiplegia is a condition that affects one side of the body, causing weakness or paralysis of the arm, leg, and face on that side. It is often caused by a stroke, but it can also be caused by other conditions, such as brain tumors, head injuries, and multiple sclerosis. Paresis is a milder form of paralysis that causes weakness, but not complete loss of movement. Paresis can affect one side of the body or both sides. The other options are incorrect. Paresis of both lower extremities is called paraparesis. Paralysis of both lower extremities is called paraplegia. Paresis of upper and lower extremities is called quadriparesis.
10. If both lower limbs are paralyzed then it is known as:
a. Quadriparesis
b. Paraplegia
c. Hemiplegia
d. Quadriplegia
Answer: b. Paraplegia
Description:Paraplegia is a form of paralysis that affects the lower limbs. It is caused by damage to the spinal cord, which can be due to a number of factors, including: Trauma: This is the most common cause of paraplegia. It can be caused by a car accident, a fall, or a gunshot wound. Tumors: A tumor in the spinal cord can damage the nerves that control the lower limbs. Infection: An infection, such as meningitis or polio, can also damage the spinal cord and cause paraplegia. Degenerative diseases: Degenerative diseases, such as multiple sclerosis and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), can also damage the spinal cord and cause paraplegia. Paraplegia can range from mild to severe. In mild cases, the person may have some movement in their legs, but they may not be able to walk. In severe cases, the person may have no movement in their legs and may be completely paralyzed from the waist down. There is no cure for paraplegia, but there are treatments that can help to improve the person's quality of life. These treatments may include: Physical therapy: Physical therapy can help the person to regain some movement in their legs and to learn how to walk again. Occupational therapy: Occupational therapy can help the person to learn how to perform activities of daily living, such as bathing, dressing, and eating. Medications: Medications can help to reduce pain and spasticity. Surgery: Surgery may be an option in some cases to relieve pressure on the spinal cord. With the right treatment, people with paraplegia can live full and active lives.
11. Which among the following is most commonly seen in a client with C6 injury?
a. Paralysis
b. Hemiparesis
c. Paraplegia
d. Quadriplegia
Answer: d. Quadriplegia
Description:In a client with a C6 (sixth cervical) spinal cord injury, the most commonly seen outcome is quadriplegia, also known as tetraplegia. Quadriplegia refers to paralysis or loss of function in all four limbs (both arms and both legs) due to the injury occurring at the cervical level of the spinal cord. The higher the level of injury, the greater the impact on body function and mobility. Option a (Paralysis) is a general term that refers to the loss of function or movement in any body part. Option b (Hemiparesis) refers to weakness on one side of the body, typically seen in strokes affecting one hemisphere of the brain. Option c (Paraplegia) is paralysis or loss of function in the lower half of the body, typically involving both legs and possibly parts of the trunk, and is associated with injuries below the cervical level of the spinal cord. In the context of a C6 injury, quadriplegia is the most common and expected outcome due to the level of the spinal cord affected.
12. If all the four limbs are paralyzed then it is known as:
a. Quadriparesis
b. Paraplegia
c. Hemiplegia
d. Paralysis
Answer: a. Quadriparesis
Description:Quadriparesis refers to weakness or partial paralysis in all four limbs, meaning that there is some degree of muscle weakness or reduced function in both arms and both legs. It is important to note that quadriparesis is not a complete loss of function; rather, it indicates varying degrees of weakness or impairment. Option b (Paraplegia) refers to complete or partial paralysis of the lower half of the body, including both legs. Option c (Hemiplegia) refers to complete or partial paralysis of one side of the body, typically caused by a brain injury or stroke affecting one hemisphere of the brain. Option d (Paralysis) is a general term that refers to the loss of function or movement in any body part and does not specifically indicate the involvement of all four limbs.
13. If half of the body is paralyzed then it is known as:
a. Quadriparesis
b. Paraplegia
c. Hemiplegia
d. Paralysis
Answer: c. Hemiplegia
Description:Hemiplegia refers to the paralysis or complete loss of function on one side of the body. It typically occurs as a result of a brain injury or stroke affecting one hemisphere of the brain. In hemiplegia, both the arm and leg on one side of the body are affected, resulting in one-sided weakness or paralysis. Option a (Quadriparesis) refers to weakness or partial paralysis in all four limbs, meaning there is some degree of muscle weakness or reduced function in both arms and both legs. Option b (Paraplegia) refers to complete or partial paralysis of the lower half of the body, including both legs. Option d (Paralysis) is a general term that refers to the loss of function or movement in any body part and does not specifically indicate the involvement of only one side of the body.
14. Symptom helps to differentiate between hemorrhagic stroke from a thrombotic stroke is:
a. Loss of consciousness
b. Recent memory
c. Muscle weakness
d. Sudden onset of severe headache
Answer: d. Sudden onset of severe headache
Description:The symptom that helps to differentiate between a hemorrhagic stroke and a thrombotic stroke is the sudden onset of a severe headache. Hemorrhagic stroke occurs when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures, leading to bleeding into or around the brain. The sudden release of blood in the brain can cause a severe headache that often develops rapidly and reaches maximum intensity within seconds to minutes. Thrombotic stroke, on the other hand, occurs when a blood clot (thrombus) forms in a blood vessel in the brain, blocking blood flow to a specific area. While muscle weakness (c) is a common symptom in both types of strokes, sudden onset of a severe headache (d) is more indicative of a hemorrhagic stroke rather than a thrombotic stroke. Loss of consciousness (a) can occur in both types of strokes, but it is not specific to either one. Recent memory (b) is not a typical differentiating symptom between these two types of strokes. Therefore, option d is the most helpful in distinguishing between hemorrhagic and thrombotic strokes.
15. Which of the following will not be observed in a client with a right hemispheric stroke?
a. Impulse control difficulty
b. Loss of depth perception
c. Muscle weakness
d. Sudden onset of severe headache.
Answer: c. Muscle weakness
Description:Patients with a right-brain stroke have left hemiplegia and left-brain stroke will have right hemiplegia.
16. Left sided hemiplegia and aphasia occur because of the involvement of:
a. Carotid artery
b. Vertebral artery
c. Left middle cerebral artery
d. Right middle cerebral artery
Answer: d. Right middle cerebral artery
Description:Right middle cerebral artery. The right middle cerebral artery (MCA) is a major blood vessel that supplies blood to the right side of the brain. If the right MCA is blocked or damaged, it can cause a stroke that results in left-sided hemiplegia and aphasia. The left middle cerebral artery (MCA) supplies blood to the left side of the brain, so damage to this artery would cause right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia. The carotid artery and the vertebral artery are both major blood vessels that supply blood to the brain, but they do not typically cause hemiplegia or aphasia when they are damaged. Hemiplegia is paralysis of one side of the body, and aphasia is a language disorder that can affect a person's ability to speak, understand, read, or write. These two conditions are often seen together because they are both caused by damage to the same area of the brain. If you are experiencing left-sided hemiplegia and aphasia, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. These conditions can be serious, but they can often be treated effectively if they are diagnosed and treated early.
17. A male patient is experiencing urinary incontinence after a stroke. Bladder training for this patient includes all; EXCEPT:
a. Kegel exercises.
b. Intermittent self-cerebral artery.
c. Assisting the patient to stand to void
d. Continuous urinary drainage
Answer: c. Assisting the patient to stand to void
Description:Bladder training for a male patient experiencing urinary incontinence after a stroke includes various techniques to improve bladder control and reduce episodes of incontinence. However, assisting the patient to stand to void (option c) is not typically a part of bladder training for stroke patients with urinary incontinence. The other options are relevant to bladder training: a. Kegel exercises: These exercises involve contracting and relaxing the pelvic floor muscles to strengthen them and improve urinary control. b. Intermittent self-catheterization: This technique involves the patient inserting a catheter into the urethra to empty the bladder at regular intervals, which can help manage urinary retention and incontinence. d. Continuous urinary drainage: In some cases, a catheter may be inserted to continuously drain the urine from the bladder. However, this is not typically a part of bladder training but rather a temporary measure to manage incontinence in certain situations. Bladder training for urinary incontinence after a stroke is usually focused on retraining the bladder and establishing a regular voiding schedule, along with Kegel exercises and possibly intermittent self-catheterization, to improve bladder control and reduce incontinence episodes.
18. Leading risk factor of hemorrhagic stroke is:
a. CAD
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Hypertension
d. Aneurysm
Answer: c. Hypertension
Description:Hypertension (high blood pressure) is the leading risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke. When blood pressure is consistently elevated, it puts strain on the blood vessel walls, making them more susceptible to rupture. A ruptured blood vessel in the brain can cause bleeding, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Options a (CAD - Coronary Artery Disease) and b (Atherosclerosis) are risk factors for ischemic stroke, which is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel in the brain, not by bleeding. However, they are not the leading risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke. Option d (Aneurysm) is a condition where a weakened and bulging blood vessel can rupture, causing bleeding in the brain. Aneurysms are a specific cause of hemorrhagic stroke, but hypertension remains the leading risk factor that contributes to the development and rupture of an aneurysm and other forms of hemorrhagic strokes.
19. Nurse has to insert a nasogastric tube to a stroke client and understand that the best position for the insertion is:
a. Low Fowlers position
b. Sims position
c. High Fowlers position
d. Trendelenburg position
Answer: c. High Fowlers position
Description:Patient with stroke is also associated with dysphagia, therefore, the insertion of NG tube become more difficult. High flower’s position cases the insertion of NG tube and reduces the risk of aspiration. Semi Fowler’s position or Low Fowler’s position prevents the risk of aspiration especially in comatose patients.
20. Long-term treatment for thrombotic stroke is:
a. Acetaminophen
b. Tissue plasminogen activator
c. Aspirin
d. Warfarin
Answer: c. Aspirin
Description:Aspirin. Aspirin is a blood thinner that can help to prevent blood clots from forming. It is often used as a long-term treatment for thrombotic stroke, as it can help to reduce the risk of a second stroke. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is a clot-busting medication that can be used to treat ischemic stroke. However, it is only effective if it is given within a few hours of the stroke. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever that is not effective for treating stroke. Warfarin is a blood thinner that is sometimes used as a long-term treatment for thrombotic stroke, but it is more commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation. Here are some other long-term treatments for thrombotic stroke: Control of blood pressure: High blood pressure is a major risk factor for stroke, so it is important to keep blood pressure under control. Control of cholesterol: High cholesterol is another major risk factor for stroke, so it is important to keep cholesterol levels low. Lifestyle changes: Making lifestyle changes, such as quitting smoking and eating a healthy diet, can also help to reduce the risk of stroke. If you have had a thrombotic stroke, it is important to work with your doctor to develop a long-term treatment plan. This plan will likely include medication, lifestyle changes, and regular checkups.
21. Long-term treatment for embolic stroke is:
a. Acetaminophen
b. Tissue plasminogen activator
c. Aspirin
d. Warfarin
Answer: d. Warfarin
Description:Warfarin. Warfarin is a blood thinner that can help to prevent blood clots from forming. It is often used as a long-term treatment for embolic stroke, as it can help to reduce the risk of a second stroke. Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is a clot-busting medication that can be used to treat ischemic stroke. However, it is only effective if it is given within a few hours of the stroke. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever that is not effective for treating stroke. Here are some other long-term treatments for embolic stroke: Control of blood pressure: High blood pressure is a major risk factor for stroke, so it is important to keep blood pressure under control. Control of cholesterol: High cholesterol is another major risk factor for stroke, so it is important to keep cholesterol levels low. Lifestyle changes: Making lifestyle changes, such as quitting smoking and eating a healthy diet, can also help to reduce the risk of stroke. If you have had an embolic stroke, it is important to work with your doctor to develop a long-term treatment plan. This plan will likely include medication, lifestyle changes, and regular checkups. There are some differences between the long-term treatment of thrombotic and embolic stroke. For example, thrombotic stroke is often treated with aspirin, while embolic stroke is often treated with warfarin. This is because aspirin is less effective at preventing blood clots from forming in the heart, which is where emboli typically come from.
22. Most effective treatment for ischemic stroke is:
a. Acetaminophen
b. Tissue plasminogen activator
c. Aspirin
d. Warfarin
Answer: b. Tissue plasminogen activator
Description:The most effective treatment for ischemic stroke is tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). tPA is a medication that can help dissolve the blood clot causing the blockage in a cerebral artery during an ischemic stroke. It is a time-sensitive treatment and works best when administered as soon as possible after the onset of stroke symptoms. tPA helps restore blood flow to the affected part of the brain, potentially limiting the extent of brain damage and improving outcomes. Option a (Acetaminophen) is a pain reliever and fever reducer, but it is not a treatment for stroke. Option c (Aspirin) is often given to patients after a stroke to prevent future strokes by reducing blood clot formation. However, it is not the primary treatment for an acute ischemic stroke. Option d (Warfarin) is an anticoagulant medication, but it is not the first-line treatment for acute ischemic stroke. In fact, anticoagulants like warfarin are contraindicated during the acute phase of ischemic stroke because they can increase the risk of bleeding. tPA is the preferred treatment for eligible patients with ischemic stroke within the appropriate time window.
23. Which of the following pharmacological management is inappropriate regarding medical management of a client with CVA?
a. Osmotic diuretics are given to decreases cerebral edema
b. Aspirin is used in the acute management of a completed stroke
c. Corticosteroids are given to decrease cerebral edema
d. Thrombolytics are most useful within three hours of an occlusive CVA.
Answer: b. Aspirin is used in the acute management of a completed stroke
Description:Aspirin is a platelet deaggregator used in the prevention of recurrent or embolic stroke but is not used in the acute management of completed stroke as it may lead to bleeding.
24. The paralysis of both upper and lower extremities is known as:
a. Hemiplegia
b. Paraplegia
c. Monoplegia
d. Quadriplegia
Answer: d. Quadriplegia
Description:Correct answer: d. Quadriplegia Quadriplegia, also known as tetraplegia, refers to the paralysis or loss of function in both upper and lower extremities, as well as the trunk and pelvic organs. It occurs when there is a spinal cord injury or neurological condition affecting the cervical (neck) region of the spinal cord. The term "quadriplegia" is derived from "quad-" (meaning four) and "-plegia" (meaning paralysis), indicating that all four limbs are affected. Option a (Hemiplegia) refers to the paralysis of one side of the body, typically caused by a brain injury or stroke affecting one hemisphere of the brain. Option b (Paraplegia) refers to the paralysis or loss of function in both lower extremities and the lower trunk, typically caused by a spinal cord injury or condition affecting the thoracic, lumbar, or sacral regions of the spinal cord. Option c (Monoplegia) refers to the paralysis of a single limb or a specific part of the body, such as one arm or one leg, usually caused by a localized nerve injury or condition.
25. Uncoordinated movement of the extremities in a patient with traumatic brain injury is termed as:
a. Ataxias
b. Apraxia
c. Dystonia
d. Dyskinesia
Answer: a. Ataxias
Description:The word ‘ataxia’ means without coordination. The ataxia is often used to describe symptoms of incoordination which can be associated with infections, injures, other disease, or degenerative changes in the central nervous system. Clients with ataxia have problems with coordination because parts of the nervous system that control movement and balance are affected. Ataxia may affect the fingers, hands, arm, leg, body, speech, and eye movements.
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