NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 120
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1. Subdural empyema is caused by:
a. Pneumococci
b. Gonococci
c. Streptococcus pneumonia
d. Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: c. Streptococcus pneumonia
Description:Streptococcus pneumonia. Subdural empyema is a collection of pus between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. It is a serious condition that can be fatal if not treated. The most common cause of subdural empyema is Streptococcus pneumoniae, followed by Staphylococcus aureus and Haemophilus influenzae. Other organisms that can cause subdural empyema include: Neisseria meningitidis Listeria monocytogenes E coli Bacteroides Streptococcus viridans Subdural empyema can be caused by a number of things, including: Infection of the middle ear or sinuses Head injury Necrotizing brain abscess Surgical procedures Intravenous drug use The symptoms of subdural empyema can include: Headache Fever Nausea and vomiting Seizures Neck stiffness Visual disturbances Changes in consciousness The diagnosis of subdural empyema is made by CT or MRI scan of the brain. The treatment for subdural empyema is antibiotics and surgery. The antibiotics are usually given intravenously, and the treatment may last for several weeks. Surgery may be necessary to drain the pus and relieve pressure on the brain. Subdural empyema is a serious condition, but it is curable with prompt treatment. If you have any of the symptoms of subdural empyema, you should see a doctor immediately.
2. All of the following are correct regarding poliomyelitis; EXCEPT:
a. Caused by RNA virus
b. The virus belongs to enterovirus family with three subtypes
c. Affects the motor neurons of spinal cord and brainstem
d. Route of transmission is fecal-oral route
Answer: a. Caused by RNA virus
Description:In reality, poliomyelitis is caused by a virus known as the poliovirus, which is an RNA virus. So, option (a) is incorrect. Poliomyelitis is indeed caused by the poliovirus, which belongs to the enterovirus family with three subtypes (Option b). It primarily affects the motor neurons of the spinal cord and brainstem (Option c), and its route of transmission is typically through the fecal-oral route (Option d).
3. VP shunt is the surgical management for:
a. Spina bifida
b. Brain tumor
c. Hydrocephalus
d. ASD
Answer: c. Hydrocephalus
Description:Hydrocephalus. A VP shunt is a type of medical device that is used to drain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain to another part of the body, usually the abdomen. It is used to treat hydrocephalus, a condition in which there is an excess of CSF in the brain. The other options are incorrect. Spina bifida is a birth defect that occurs when the spine does not close properly. Brain tumor is a growth of abnormal cells in the brain. ASD is a hole in the heart that allows blood to flow between the two upper chambers of the heart. VP shunts are typically made of silicone tubing and a valve. The tubing is inserted into the brain and the valve is placed in the abdomen. The valve regulates the flow of CSF from the brain to the abdomen. VP shunts are a common treatment for hydrocephalus. They are usually effective in controlling the symptoms of hydrocephalus, such as headaches, nausea, and vomiting. However, VP shunts can also have complications, such as infection, blockage, and malfunction. If you have hydrocephalus, you may be a candidate for a VP shunt. The decision to have a VP shunt is a personal one that should be made after careful consideration of the risks and benefits.
4. Significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy is:
a. Ischemia
b. Cerebral hemorrhage
c. Microthrombi
d. Resolution of the clot
Answer: b. Cerebral hemorrhage
Description:Thrombolytic therapy involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots, which can be beneficial in treating conditions like myocardial infarction (heart attack) or ischemic stroke. However, one of the potential risks of thrombolytic therapy is an increased risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage (bleeding in the brain). This complication can be serious and potentially life-threatening. The other options (a. Ischemia, c. Microthrombi, d. Resolution of the clot) are not significant complications associated with thrombolytic therapy.
5. Purpose of carotid endarterectomy for a patient with TIA is to:
a. Decrease cerebral edema
b. Reduce cerebral ischemia
c. Prevent a stroke by removing atherosclerotic plaques that is blocking cerebral blood flow
d. Provide a circulatory bypass around thrombotic plaques obstructing cranial circulation c. Prevent a stroke by removing atherosclerotic plaques that is blocking cerebral blood flow
Answer: c. Prevent a stroke by removing atherosclerotic plaques that is blocking cerebral blood flow
Description:Prevent a stroke by removing atherosclerotic plaques that is blocking cerebral blood flow. Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure that is used to remove atherosclerotic plaques from the carotid artery. The carotid artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the brain. Atherosclerotic plaques are fatty deposits that can build up in the carotid artery and block blood flow. This can lead to a stroke. TIA stands for transient ischemic attack. A TIA is a temporary stroke-like episode that is caused by a blockage of blood flow to the brain. TIAs are often a warning sign of a stroke. Carotid endarterectomy is a common treatment for TIAs. The procedure is usually performed under general anesthesia. The surgeon makes an incision in the neck and exposes the carotid artery. The plaque is then removed from the artery. The artery is then stitched back together. Carotid endarterectomy is a safe and effective procedure. It can help to prevent strokes in people who have TIAs. The procedure is usually successful in preventing strokes in about 70% of people. The other options are incorrect. Decreasing cerebral edema and reducing cerebral ischemia are both important goals in the treatment of stroke, but they are not the purpose of carotid endarterectomy. Providing a circulatory bypass around thrombotic plaques obstructing cranial circulation is not a typical treatment for TIA.
6. An assessment specific to safe administration of IV mannitol is:
a. Vital signs q4th
b. Weighing daily
c. Hourly urine output
d. Level of consciousness q8th
Answer: c. Hourly urine output
Description:Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic which increase the urine exertion. Hence, the urine output must be carefully monitored (hourly) to prevent any fluid imbalance.
7. In CSF pathway obstruction at aqueduct of Sylvanus cause enlargement of:
a. Lateral ventricle
b. Third ventricle
c. Fourth ventricle
d. Both a and b
Answer: d. Both a and b
Description:CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) pathway obstruction at the aqueduct of Sylvius can cause enlargement of both: a. Lateral ventricle b. Third ventricle The aqueduct of Sylvius, also known as the cerebral aqueduct or the aqueductus mesencephali, is a narrow channel in the midbrain that connects the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle. If there is an obstruction at this point, it can lead to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, resulting in dilation (enlargement) of both the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle. This condition is known as hydrocephalus, and it can exert pressure on the brain, leading to various neurological symptoms.
8. How can we differentiate between hydrocephalus due to aqueduct stenosis and Dandy walker malformation?
a. Third ventricle size
b. Posterior fossa volume
c. Lateral ventricular size
d. Fourth ventricle size.
Answer: b. Posterior fossa volume
Description:Posterior fossa volume. Aqueduct stenosis is a narrowing of the aqueduct of Sylvius, which is a passage that allows cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to flow from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle. Dandy-Walker malformation is a birth defect that is characterized by the absence of the cerebellar vermis and the enlargement of the fourth ventricle. In aqueduct stenosis, the posterior fossa is usually normal in size. In Dandy-Walker malformation, the posterior fossa is enlarged. This is because the absence of the cerebellar vermis allows the fourth ventricle to expand into the posterior fossa. The other options are incorrect. The third ventricle size is usually normal in both aqueduct stenosis and Dandy-Walker malformation. The lateral ventricular size can be enlarged in both conditions, but it is usually more pronounced in aqueduct stenosis. The fourth ventricle size is enlarged in Dandy-Walker malformation, but it is normal in aqueduct stenosis. The differential diagnosis between aqueduct stenosis and Dandy-Walker malformation can be difficult. However, the enlarged posterior fossa in Dandy-Walker malformation is a helpful diagnostic clue.
9. The commonest cause of primary hydrocephalus is:
a. Obstruction to flow of CSF
b. Overproduction of CSF
c. Decreased reabsorption of CSF
d. Congenital malformation
Answer: a. Obstruction to flow of CSF
Description:Primary hydrocephalus, also known as non-communicating hydrocephalus, occurs when there is an obstruction in the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the ventricular system of the brain. This obstruction can be due to various reasons, such as a narrowing or blockage of the cerebral aqueduct, which connects the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle, or other structural abnormalities that impede the normal circulation of CSF. The other options (b. Overproduction of CSF, c. Decreased reabsorption of CSF, d. Congenital malformation) can also contribute to certain types of hydrocephalus but are not the most common cause of primary hydrocephalus.
10. All of the following measure are used to decrease brain edema; EXCEPT:
a. Hydrocortisone
b. Hyperventilation
c. Dextrose infusion
d. Mannitol infusion
Answer: c. Dextrose infusion
Description:Movement of the water between the brain and intravascular space is dependent on osmotic gradient. Mannitol, a hypertonic crystalloid solution is commonly used to reduce the ICP. But the hypo-osmolar solution like 5% dextrose in water reduce serum sodium, and increase brain water and ICP.
11. Surgery done for myasthenia gravis is:
a. Pallidotomy
b. Hypophysectomy
c. Sympathectomy
d. Thymectomy
Answer: d. Thymectomy
Description:Thymectomy. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction. It causes weakness and fatigue of the muscles. The thymus gland is involved in the development of the immune system. In some people with myasthenia gravis, the thymus gland is enlarged or has abnormal cells. Thymectomy is a surgery to remove the thymus gland. It is a common treatment for myasthenia gravis. Thymectomy is thought to help by removing the source of the antibodies that attack the neuromuscular junction. The other options are incorrect. Pallidotomy is a surgery to the globus pallidus, a part of the brain. Hypophysectomy is a surgery to remove the pituitary gland. Sympathectomy is a surgery to remove the sympathetic nerves. Thymectomy is usually performed under general anesthesia. The surgeon makes an incision in the chest and removes the thymus gland. The surgery usually takes about 2 hours. Thymectomy is a safe and effective procedure. It can help to improve the symptoms of myasthenia gravis in about 70% of people. If you have myasthenia gravis, you may be a candidate for thymectomy. The decision to have thymectomy is a personal one that should be made after careful consideration of the risks and benefits.
12. All of the following are the autoimmune neurological disorders; EXCEPT:
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Guillain bare syndrome
d. Neurocysticercosis
Answer: d. Neurocysticercosis
Description:Neurocysticercosis is a preventable parasitic infection caused by larval cysts of the pork tapeworm (Taenia solium). The larval cysts can infect various part of the body causing a condition known as cystic can infect various parts of the body causing a condition known as cysticercosis. In developing countries, neurocysticercosis is the most common parasitic disease of the nervous system and is the main cause of acquired epilepsy.
13. Multiple sclerosis most commonly affect the age group of:
a. 20 to 40 years.
b. 40 to 50 years.
c. Below 20 years
d. Above 50 years.
Answer: a. 20 to 40 years.
Description:20 to 40 years. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic disease that affects the central nervous system. It is most common in people between the ages of 20 and 40. However, it can occur at any age. The other options are incorrect. MS is less common in people under 20 years of age and above 50 years of age. The cause of MS is unknown. However, it is thought to be an autoimmune disease. This means that the body's immune system attacks its own tissues. In MS, the immune system attacks the myelin sheath, which is a protective layer that surrounds the nerve fibers in the central nervous system. The symptoms of MS can vary from person to person. They can include: Vision problems Weakness Numbness Tingling Dizziness Fatigue Spasms Slurred speech Imbalance The symptoms of MS can come and go. They can be mild or severe. There is no cure for MS. However, there are treatments that can help to manage the symptoms. Treatments for MS include: Corticosteroids Immunosuppressants Disease-modifying therapies The goal of treatment for MS is to slow the progression of the disease and to manage the symptoms. If you have any of the symptoms of MS, it is important to see a doctor. MS can be a serious disease, but with early diagnosis and treatment, most people with MS can live a normal life.
14. For a client with multiple sclerosis, what are the abnormal findings noted in lumbar puncture?
a. Decreased gamma globulin level.
b. Increased gamma globulin level.
c. Normal serum globulin level.
d. Decreased IgG index.
Answer: d. Decreased IgG index.
Description:In multiple sclerosis (MS), a lumbar puncture (also known as a spinal tap) may be performed to examine the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for specific abnormalities that can help in the diagnosis of the condition. One of the abnormalities that may be observed in the CSF of MS patients is an elevated IgG index. The IgG index is a ratio of immunoglobulin G (IgG) in the CSF compared to the IgG level in the blood. In MS, there is an increased production of IgG within the central nervous system, leading to an elevated IgG index. Therefore, the correct option is d. Decreased IgG index. Options a. Decreased gamma globulin level, b. Increased gamma globulin level, and c. Normal serum globulin level are not typical findings in the CSF of MS patients. Instead, MS is characterized by the presence of oligoclonal bands, which are abnormal bands of immunoglobulins seen in the CSF. These bands are not usually present in the blood, which is why the IgG index is increased, indicating intrathecal synthesis of IgG.
15. Which medication is essential during tension test?
a. N-Acetyl cysteine
b. Flumazenil
c. Atropine sulfate
d. Naloxone
Answer: c. Atropine sulfate
Description:A tension (edrophonium) test is a diagnostic test used to diagnose myasthenia gravis. Edrophonium prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine that increase acetylcholine levels in the neuromuscular junction and improves the strength. Atropine is prepared for immediate use in case cholinergic crisis occurs.
16. Which of the following is the major concern in Guillen-barre syndrome?
a. Pain level.
b. Respiratory status
c. Knowledge deficit.
d. None of these
Answer: b. Respiratory status
Description:Respiratory status. Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system. It can cause weakness, paralysis, and difficulty breathing. The most important concern in GBS is respiratory status. The other options are also important concerns in GBS, but they are not as important as respiratory status. Pain level can be a significant problem in GBS, but it is usually not life-threatening. Knowledge deficit can be a problem for patients with GBS, but it is usually not as serious as respiratory problems. If you have GBS, it is important to monitor your respiratory status closely. If you have any difficulty breathing, you should seek medical attention immediately. Here are some tips for managing respiratory status in GBS: Monitor your breathing rate and depth. Use a pulse oximeter to measure your oxygen saturation levels. If you have difficulty breathing, use a ventilator. Get plenty of rest. Avoid activities that can make your breathing worse, such as coughing or sneezing. With proper care, most people with GBS make a full recovery. However, it is important to be aware of the risks and to seek medical attention if you have any concerns.
17. Ipsilateral facial palsy with contralateral hemiplegia is seen in lesions of:
a. Medulla
b. Pons
c. Tegmentum
d. Mild brain
Answer: b. Pons
Description:For a client with multiple sclerosis, the abnormal finding noted in lumbar puncture is: d. Decreased IgG index. In multiple sclerosis (MS), a lumbar puncture (also known as a spinal tap) may be performed to examine the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for specific abnormalities that can help in the diagnosis of the condition. One of the abnormalities that may be observed in the CSF of MS patients is an elevated IgG index. The IgG index is a ratio of immunoglobulin G (IgG) in the CSF compared to the IgG level in the blood. In MS, there is an increased production of IgG within the central nervous system, leading to an elevated IgG index. Therefore, the correct option is d. Decreased IgG index. Options a. Decreased gamma globulin level, b. Increased gamma globulin level, and c. Normal serum globulin level are not typical findings in the CSF of MS patients. Instead, MS is characterized by the presence of oligoclonal bands, which are abnormal bands of immunoglobulins seen in the CSF. These bands are not usually present in the blood, which is why the IgG index is increased, indicating intrathecal synthesis of IgG. User . Ipsilateral facial palsy with contralateral hemiplegia is seen in lesions of: a. Medulla b. Pons c. Tegmentum d. Mild brain Ans: b ChatGPT Correct! Ipsilateral facial palsy with contralateral hemiplegia is seen in lesions of the: b. Pons This neurologic condition is known as the "Millard-Gubler syndrome," which is a type of brainstem stroke syndrome. It results from a lesion affecting the facial nerve nucleus and the corticospinal tract at the level of the pons. As a result of the lesion, there is paralysis of the facial muscles on the same side as the lesion (ipsilateral facial palsy) and weakness or paralysis of the limbs on the opposite side of the body (contralateral hemiplegia). Options a. Medulla, c. Tegmentum, and d. Mild brain are not associated with the specific combination of symptoms described in the question.
18. Which of the cranial nerve disorder causes Bell’s palsy?
a. Facial (VII)
b. Trigeminal (V)
c. Vagus (X)
d. Vestibulocochlear (VIII)
Answer: a. Facial (VII)
Description:Bell’s palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness and paralysis. Bell’s palsy is a condition whereby the inner ear becomes inflamed, resulting in pressure on the facial nerve. which is turn causes facial paralysis on the affected side.
19. Bell’s palsy is due to the injury of which cranial nerve?
a. Trigeminal
b. Facial
c. Trochlear
d. Hypoglossal
Answer: b. Facial
Description:Bacial. Bell's palsy is a sudden, one-sided weakness or paralysis of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). It is the most common cause of facial paralysis. The facial nerve controls the muscles that allow us to smile, frown, blink, and control the movement of the mouth. When the facial nerve is injured, these muscles are unable to function properly. The cause of Bell's palsy is unknown. However, it is thought to be caused by inflammation of the facial nerve. This inflammation can be caused by a number of things, including: A viral infection, such as the cold or the flu An ear infection A tumor Autoimmune disease Bell's palsy usually goes away on its own within a few weeks or months. However, in some cases, the paralysis can be permanent. There is no specific treatment for Bell's palsy. However, there are some things that can be done to help relieve the symptoms, such as: Resting the facial muscles Using eye drops or ointments to keep the eyes moist Taking over-the-counter pain relievers Physical therapy If you think you may have Bell's palsy, it is important to see a doctor. The doctor can diagnose the condition and rule out other possible causes.
20. Which one of the following is the most appropriate additions to the care plan for the patient with Bell’s palsy?
a. Inspect the buccal pouch for food after eating
b. Advise the patient to drink liquids from a cup
c. Discourage the patient from looking in a mirror
d. Reduce the amount of light with the room
Answer: a. Inspect the buccal pouch for food after eating
Description:a. Inspect the buccal pouch for food after eating. Bell's palsy is a condition that causes temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, usually on one side of the face. It can affect the person's ability to control facial movements, including closing the eye and smiling. Due to these facial muscle weaknesses, patients may have difficulty controlling their oral muscles, including the buccal pouch (the space between the cheeks and the teeth). Inspecting the buccal pouch for food after eating is essential because the patient may have difficulty closing their lips completely or may experience food retention in the buccal pouch, leading to the risk of aspiration or choking. By inspecting the buccal pouch after eating, any food particles or debris can be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of complications. Options b. Advise the patient to drink liquids from a cup, c. Discourage the patient from looking in a mirror, and d. Reduce the amount of light within the room are not directly related to the specific concern of inspecting the buccal pouch for food after eating in Bell's palsy patients. These options may be relevant in other contexts or conditions, but they are not the most appropriate additions to the care plan for a patient with Bell's palsy.
21. Correct option regarding amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is:
a. It is a progressing disease
b. It eventually results in permanent paralysis
c. Person will not lose any cognitive function
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects the nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. It eventually results in permanent paralysis, but it does not affect cognitive function. ALS is a rare disease, affecting about 5 of every 100,000 people. It is more common in men than in women. The cause of ALS is unknown, but it is thought to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors. The symptoms of ALS usually start in the hands or feet and gradually spread to other parts of the body. The most common symptoms are: Weakness Spasticity Slurred speech Difficulty swallowing Difficulty breathing There is no cure for ALS, but there are treatments that can help to slow the progression of the disease and to manage the symptoms. Treatments for ALS include: Riluzole Edaravone Physical therapy Speech therapy Occupational therapy ALS is a terminal illness, and the average life expectancy after diagnosis is about 5 years. However, some people with ALS live for much longer. The important thing to remember about ALS is that it does not affect cognitive function. People with ALS remain mentally sharp until the very end.
22. Which among the following condition is characterized by gradual loss of ability to spea and/or understand what others are saying?
a. Agnosia
b. Apraxia.
c. Primary progressive aphasia.
d. Echopraxia.
Answer: c. Primary progressive aphasia.
Description:The condition characterized by a gradual loss of the ability to speak and/or understand what others are saying is: c. Primary progressive aphasia. Primary progressive aphasia (PPA) is a type of neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects language skills. It is a form of frontotemporal dementia and is characterized by the slow and progressive deterioration of language abilities, including difficulty finding words, forming sentences, and understanding spoken or written language. Unlike other types of dementia, PPA typically spares other cognitive functions in the early stages of the disease. Options a. Agnosia, b. Apraxia, and d. Echopraxia are not associated with a gradual loss of language abilities, and their definitions are as follows: a. Agnosia: A condition where an individual has difficulty recognizing and identifying objects or sensory stimuli despite intact sensory function. b. Apraxia: A neurological disorder characterized by the inability to perform purposeful movements or actions, even though there is no muscle weakness or sensory impairment. d. Echopraxia: A neurological condition characterized by the involuntary imitation of another person's movements.
23. The patient may suffer from Guillain Baree syndrome. If the has shown the symptoms of:
a. Encephalitis.
b. Gastrointestinal and respiratory infection in first 4 weeks
c. Trauma to brain
d. Spinal cord injury
Answer: b. Gastrointestinal and respiratory infection in first 4 weeks
Description:Recent history of gastrointestinal and respiratory infection are predisposing of Guillain Barre syndrome.
24. When caring for a patient admitted with Guillain-Barre syndrome, which nursing diagnosis should take priority?
a. Anxiety
b. Imbalanced gas exchange.
c. Impaired gas exchange.
d. Impaired mobility.
Answer: c. Impaired gas exchange.
Description:Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a neurological disorder that can cause weakness and paralysis, including the muscles that help with breathing. This can lead to respiratory failure, so it is important to monitor the patient's respiratory status closely and to provide respiratory support as needed. The other options are also important nursing diagnoses for patients with GBS, but they are not as time-sensitive as imbalanced gas exchange. Anxiety can be a problem for patients with GBS, but it is usually not as serious as respiratory problems. Impaired mobility can also be a problem, but it is usually not as life-threatening as respiratory problems. If you are caring for a patient with GBS, it is important to monitor their respiratory status closely and to provide respiratory support as needed. You should also monitor the patient for signs of anxiety and impaired mobility, and provide interventions as needed.
25. Damage to which of the following leads to Guillain-Barre syndrome?
a. Brain parenchyma
b. Peripheral nervous system
c. Spinal cord
d. Thyroid glands.
Answer: b. Peripheral nervous system
Description:In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves, leading to inflammation and damage to the nerve's protective covering (myelin sheath) and, in some cases, the nerve fibers themselves. This damage disrupts the nerve's ability to transmit signals properly and results in the characteristic symptoms of GBS, such as muscle weakness, tingling, and paralysis. Options a. Brain parenchyma, c. Spinal cord, and d. Thyroid glands are not directly related to the pathophysiology of Guillain-Barre syndrome. GBS specifically involves the peripheral nervous system and does not primarily affect the brain, spinal cord, or thyroid glands.
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