NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 130
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1. Prognosis of Wilms tumor depends upon:
a. Histopathology
b. Treatment taken
c. Age <1 year
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma
Answer: a. Histopathology
Description:Wilms tumor is a type of kidney cancer that most commonly affects children under the age of 5. The prognosis of Wilms tumor depends on a number of factors, including the histopathology of the tumor, the stage of the tumor, and the patient's age. Histopathology: The histopathology of a tumor refers to the type of cells that make up the tumor. Wilms tumors can be classified as favorable or unfavorable based on their histopathology. Favorable Wilms tumors have a better prognosis than unfavorable Wilms tumors. Stage of the tumor: The stage of the tumor refers to how far the tumor has spread. Wilms tumors are staged from 1 to 4, with stage 1 being the least advanced and stage 4 being the most advanced. Wilms tumors that are stage 1 or 2 have a better prognosis than Wilms tumors that are stage 3 or 4. Patient's age: The patient's age is also a factor that affects the prognosis of Wilms tumor. Wilms tumors that occur in children under the age of 1 year have a better prognosis than Wilms tumors that occur in older children. Other factors that may affect the prognosis of Wilms tumor include the presence of certain genetic mutations and the patient's response to treatment. Treatment for Wilms tumor usually includes surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. The type of treatment that is given will depend on the factors mentioned above. The prognosis for Wilms tumor has improved significantly in recent years. With early diagnosis and treatment, most children with Wilms tumor can be cured. The other options are not correct. Rhabdomyosarcoma is a different type of cancer, and age <1 year and treatment taken are not the only factors that affect the prognosis of Wilms tumor.
2. WT1 gene is associated with:
a. Wilm’s tumor
b. Osteo sarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Retinoblastoma
Answer: a. Wilm’s tumor
Description:The WT1 gene is indeed associated with Wilms tumor (also known as nephroblastoma), which is a type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. Mutations in the WT1 gene are known to play a significant role in the development of Wilms tumor.
3. Painless gross hematuria is the most common clinical manifestation of:
a. Acute kidney injury
b. Cancer of prostate
c. Carcinoma-urinary bladder
d. Renal blastoma
Answer: c. Carcinoma-urinary bladder
Description:Painless gross hematuria is the most common clinical manifestation of carcinoma-urinary bladder. It is a type of cancer that starts in the lining of the bladder. Painless gross hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine that is visible to the naked eye. It is often accompanied by other symptoms, such as urinary frequency, urgency, and pain. The other options are not correct. Cancer of the prostate is a type of cancer that starts in the prostate gland. It is not typically associated with painless gross hematuria. Renal blastoma is a type of kidney cancer that is most common in children. It is also not typically associated with painless gross hematuria. Acute kidney injury is a sudden loss of kidney function. It is not typically associated with painless gross hematuria. If you experience painless gross hematuria, it is important to see your doctor right away. They can diagnose the cause of the bleeding and discuss treatment options with you.
4. Most commonly seen carcinoma is elderly male is:
a. Tongue
b. Oral
c. Lung
d. Prostate
Answer: d. Prostate
Description:The most commonly seen carcinoma in elderly males is prostate carcinoma. Prostate cancer is a type of cancer that develops in the prostate gland, which is a part of the male reproductive system. It is more prevalent in older men, and the risk increases with age.
5. Risk factor for prostate cancer include:
a. Asian race
b. Black race
c. Removal of testicles before 40 years of age.
d. Young age
Answer: b. Black race
Description:a. Removal of testicles before 40 years of age (This reduces the risk since the testosterone produced by the testicles can stimulate prostate cancer growth). b. Black race (Black men have a higher risk of developing prostate cancer compared to other racial groups). c. Asian race (Asian men generally have a lower risk of developing prostate cancer compared to other racial groups). d. Young age (Prostate cancer is more commonly diagnosed in older men, so young age is not considered a risk factor).
6. All of the following are useful in diagnosing carcinoma of prostate; EXCEPT:
a. Prostatic acid phosphatase.
b. Free prostate specific antigen
c. Carcinoembryonic antigen
d. Total prostate specific antigen
Answer: c. Carcinoembryonic antigen
Description:Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a protein that is produced by some cancer cells. However, it is not specific for prostate cancer. CEA can be elevated in other types of cancer, such as colon cancer and lung cancer. The other options are all useful in diagnosing carcinoma of the prostate. Free prostate-specific antigen (PSA): Free PSA is a type of PSA that is not bound to other proteins. It is thought to be a more accurate marker of prostate cancer than total PSA. Total PSA: Total PSA is the sum of free PSA and PSA that is bound to other proteins. It is a less accurate marker of prostate cancer than free PSA. Prostatic acid phosphatase: Prostatic acid phosphatase is an enzyme that is produced by the prostate gland. It is elevated in some cases of prostate cancer.
7. Which of following is correct about the diagnosis of prostate cancer?
a. Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is performed for the diagnosis of prostate cancer
b. Urinary obstructive symptoms are highly suggestive
c. Most patient with PSA>40 ng/ml will have prostate cancer
d. It is diagnosed with biopsy by FNA
Answer: a. Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is performed for the diagnosis of prostate cancer
Description:a. Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is performed for the diagnosis of prostate cancer. Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is one of the initial steps in diagnosing prostate cancer. During a DRE, a healthcare provider inserts a gloved, lubricated finger into the rectum to feel the prostate gland for any abnormalities, such as nodules or hard areas that may indicate the presence of prostate cancer. The other statements are not entirely correct: b. Most patients with PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) > 40 ng/ml will not necessarily have prostate cancer. Elevated PSA levels can indicate prostate-related issues, including cancer, but further evaluation and testing, such as a biopsy, are needed for a definitive diagnosis. c. While urinary obstructive symptoms can raise suspicion for prostate cancer, they are not highly specific and can also be caused by various other prostate conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). d. Prostate cancer is indeed diagnosed through a biopsy, but it is typically done using a Transrectal Ultrasound (TRUS)-guided biopsy rather than Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA). In TRUS-guided biopsy, small tissue samples are taken from the prostate using a needle, and those samples are then analyzed by a pathologist to confirm the presence of cancer cells.
8. All of the following statement regarding prostate cancer is true; EXCEPT:
a. It usually affects men over 50 years of age.
b. Burning or pain during urination is an early sign of prostate cancer
c. In 70-80% of cases, it arises in the peripheral zone
d. Low serum calcium levels in advanced stage of prostate cancer.
Answer: d. Low serum calcium levels in advanced stage of prostate cancer.
Description:Prostate cancer is a type of cancer that starts in the prostate gland. The prostate gland is a small gland that is located in front of the rectum and below the bladder. Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men after skin cancer. The other options are all true statements about prostate cancer. a. It usually affects men over 50 years of age. The risk of prostate cancer increases with age. Most cases of prostate cancer are diagnosed in men over the age of 50. b. In 70-80% of cases, it arises in the peripheral zone. The peripheral zone is the outer part of the prostate gland. Most cases of prostate cancer start in the peripheral zone. c. Burning or pain during urination is an early sign of prostate cancer. Burning or pain during urination is not an early sign of prostate cancer. It is more likely to be a symptom of a urinary tract infection.
9. Most specific indicator marker for diagnosing prostate cancer:
a. CA-125
b. CEA
c. AFP
d. PSA
Answer: d. PSA
Description:The PSA test (prostate-specific antigen) is a blood test used primarily to screen for prostate cancer. PSA is a protein produced by both cancerous and non-cancerous tissue in the prostate. The PSA test can detect high levels of PSA that may indicate the presence of prostate cancer. However, the confirmatory test to diagnose prostate cancer is biopsy.
10. Risk for prostatic cancer is:
a. Older than 65 years
b. BPH
c. Fat rich diet
d. Previous history of urinary stones
Answer: a. Older than 65 years
Description:a. Older than 65 years: Prostate cancer is more commonly diagnosed in older men, and the risk increases with age. b. Fat-rich diet: Some studies have suggested a potential link between a high-fat diet and an increased risk of prostate cancer, although the evidence is not entirely consistent. c. BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia): BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, and having BPH does not necessarily increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, both conditions can occur simultaneously. d. Previous history of urinary stones: There is no established direct link between a history of urinary stones and an increased risk of prostate cancer. However, certain risk factors for urinary stones, such as dietary habits, may overlap with risk factors for prostate cancer.
11. Ca prostate develops in which region of the prostate?
d. Both a and c
b. Peripheral zone
a. Transition zone
c. Central zone
Answer: b. Peripheral zone
Description:Prostate cancer most commonly starts in the peripheral zone of the prostate gland. This is the outer part of the gland, and it makes up about 70% of the gland's volume. The central zone and transition zone are less common sites for prostate cancer. The transition zone is located between the peripheral zone and the bladder. It makes up about 5% of the gland's volume. The central zone is located at the center of the gland. It makes up about 25% of the gland's volume. Prostate cancer that starts in the peripheral zone is more likely to be slow-growing and less aggressive than prostate cancer that starts in the central zone or transition zone.
12. Treatment of cancer of prostate includes:
a. Luteinizing hormone releasing hormone agonists
b. Antiandrogen drugs
c. Bilateral orchiectomy
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:The treatment of prostate cancer can include various approaches, and all of the options listed are commonly used in different stages or types of prostate cancer: a. Bilateral orchiectomy: This surgical procedure involves the removal of both testicles, which reduces the production of testosterone, a hormone that can stimulate the growth of prostate cancer cells. b. Luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists: These drugs work by suppressing the production of testosterone in the testicles, similar to bilateral orchiectomy. They are usually given as injections and are a less invasive alternative to surgery. c. Antiandrogen drugs: These drugs block the action of androgens (male hormones) like testosterone on the prostate cancer cells. They can be used alone or in combination with LHRH agonists to further reduce androgen levels. Each treatment option has its indications and potential side effects, and the choice of treatment depends on factors such as the stage of the cancer, the age and health of the patient, and individual preferences. In some cases, a combination of treatments may be used to achieve the best possible outcome.
13. Which one of the following cancers does not metastasize commonly
a. Colon
b. Breast
c. Lung
d. Prostate
Answer: d. Prostate
Description:Prostate cancer does not commonly metastasize to liver. it commonly metastasize to bone
14. Principle behind hormonal therapy in prostate cancer is:
a. Improve 5 alpha reductase production
b. Reduce testosterone production
c. Improve testosterone production
d. Reduce 5 alpha reductase production.
Answer: d. Reduce 5 alpha reductase production.
Description:Prostate cancer is a hormone-sensitive cancer, which means that it needs testosterone to grow. Hormonal therapy for prostate cancer works by reducing testosterone production or blocking the effects of testosterone. There are two main types of hormonal therapy for prostate cancer: Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT): This type of therapy reduces testosterone production by either removing the testicles or by using drugs that block the production of testosterone. Antiandrogen therapy: This type of therapy blocks the effects of testosterone by preventing it from binding to its receptors on prostate cancer cells. Hormonal therapy can be used to treat prostate cancer at any stage. It is often used in combination with other treatments, such as radiation therapy or surgery. The other options are not correct. Testosterone production is not improved in hormonal therapy for prostate cancer. 5 alpha reductase is an enzyme that converts testosterone into dihydrotestosterone, which is a more potent form of testosterone. Blocking the production of 5 alpha reductase can help to reduce the amount of dihydrotestosterone in the body, which can slow the growth of prostate cancer cells.
15. Hormonal therapy used in cancer of prostate is also known as:
a. Androgen deprivation therapy
b. Estrogen therapy
c. Testosterone therapy
d. Antagonizing therapy.
Answer: a. Androgen deprivation therapy
Description:Hormonal therapy used in prostate cancer is also known as Androgen Deprivation Therapy (ADT). ADT aims to reduce the levels or block the action of androgens (male hormones), particularly testosterone, which can promote the growth and spread of prostate cancer cells. The correct answer is: a. Androgen deprivation therapy.
16. Testicular cancer is often presented with:
a. Dysuria
b. Dyspareunia
c. Cryptorchidism.
d. Painless mass and heaviness sensation over the scrotal sac.
Answer: d. Painless mass and heaviness sensation over the scrotal sac.
Description:Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that starts in the testicles. The testicles are two small, oval-shaped organs that hang in the scrotum, which is the sac of skin that hangs below the penis. Testicular cancer is often presented with a painless mass and heaviness sensation over the scrotal sac. The mass may be hard or soft, and it may be smooth or lumpy. The heaviness sensation is due to the mass pulling on the spermatic cord, which is the cord that attaches the testicle to the abdomen. Other symptoms of testicular cancer include: A sudden change in the size or shape of a testicle A dull ache or pain in the scrotum A feeling of heaviness in the scrotum A lump or swelling in the scrotum A watery discharge from the penis Blood in the semen If you experience any of these symptoms, it is important to see a doctor right away. Testicular cancer is a treatable cancer, but it is important to diagnose it early. The other options are not correct. Dysuria is pain or difficulty urinating. Cryptorchidism is a condition in which one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum. Dyspareunia is pain during sexual intercourse.
17. Earliest sign in testicular cancer is:
a. Urgency
b. Painless enlargement of testes
c. Frequency of urine
d. Dysuria
Answer: b. Painless enlargement of testes
Description:The earliest sign of testicular cancer is often painless enlargement of the testes. This may be noticed by the individual themselves during a self-examination or by a healthcare provider during a routine physical examination. Testicular enlargement or the presence of a painless lump in the testicle should raise suspicion for testicular cancer and prompt further evaluation by a doctor. The other options mentioned (frequency of urine, urgency, dysuria) are symptoms that are more commonly associated with urinary tract issues and not typical early signs of testicular cancer.
18. True about penile carcinoma is:
b. Total incidence is less than 1% of all cancers in male.
c. Chances is more with HPV
a. Most of the penile cancers are squamous in origin
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Most of the penile cancers are squamous in origin. Squamous cells are the flat cells that line the inside of the penis. Most penile cancers start in these squamous cells. Total incidence is less than 1% of all cancers in male. Penile cancer is a rare cancer. It accounts for less than 1% of all cancers in men. Chances is more with HPV. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause penile cancer. Men who are infected with HPV are at an increased risk of developing penile cancer. If you are concerned about your risk of penile cancer, talk to your doctor. They can discuss your risk factors and recommend ways to reduce your risk. Here are some other facts about penile carcinoma: The average age of diagnosis for penile cancer is 60 years old. Penile cancer is more common in uncircumcised men. The symptoms of penile cancer can include a lump or growth on the penis, bleeding from the penis, or a change in the appearance of the penis. Penile cancer is usually treated with surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer is good if it is diagnosed early.
19. Tumor of blood vessel of brain is:
a. Meningioma
b. Astrocytoma
c. Hemangioma
d. Glioma
Answer: c. Hemangioma
Description:The tumor of blood vessels in the brain is called a Hemangioma. Hemangiomas are benign tumors that arise from blood vessels, and they can occur in various parts of the body, including the brain.
20. The commonest tumor associated with type I neuro-fibromatosis is:
a. Optic nerve glioma
b. Schwannoma
c. Meningioma
d. Oligodendroglion
Answer: a. Optic nerve glioma
Description:Neurofibromatosis type I (NF1) is a genetic disorder that causes tumors to grow in the nervous system. The most common tumor associated with NF1 is optic nerve glioma, which is a tumor that grows on the optic nerve. Optic nerve gliomas can cause vision loss, but they are usually benign and can be treated with surgery or radiation therapy. Other tumors that can be associated with NF1 include: Schwannomas: Schwannomas are tumors that grow on the nerves. They can occur anywhere in the body, but they are most common in the head and neck. Schwannomas are usually benign, but they can be cancerous. Meningiomas: Meningiomas are tumors that grow on the meninges, which are the membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. Meningiomas are usually benign, but they can be cancerous. Lisch nodules: Lisch nodules are small, pigmented tumors that grow on the iris, which is the colored part of the eye. Lisch nodules are harmless and do not cause any problems.
21. Most commonly seen meningeal tumor is:
a. Meningioma
b. Neurofibroma
c. Schwannoma
d. Glioma
Answer: a. Meningioma
Description:Meningiomas are the most common type of tumor that occurs in the meninges, which are the membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. They are benign tumors, meaning they are not cancerous. However, they can grow large and cause problems if they press on the brain or spinal cord. The symptoms of a meningioma can vary depending on the size and location of the tumor. Common symptoms include: Headaches Nausea and vomiting Seizures Visual problems Weakness or numbness in the arms or legs Difficulty walking Meningiomas are usually diagnosed with a combination of imaging tests, such as a CT scan or MRI. Treatment for meningiomas depends on the size and location of the tumor. Small tumors may be monitored with regular imaging tests. Larger tumors may require surgery to remove them. In rare cases, meningiomas can become cancerous. These tumors are called malignant meningiomas. Malignant meningiomas are more likely to spread to other parts of the body, such as the lungs or bones. If you have any of the symptoms of a meningioma, it is important to see a doctor right away. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve the outcome.
22. Following are the type of gliomas; EXCEPT:
a. Ependymoma
b. Astrocytoma’s
c. Oligodendrogliomas
d. Osteoblastoma
Answer: d. Osteoblastoma
Description:Osteoblastoma is not a type of glioma. It is a rare, benign bone tumor that originates from osteoblasts, the cells responsible for bone formation. The other options are all types of gliomas: a. Astrocytomas: Gliomas that arise from astrocytes, a type of glial cell in the brain. b. Oligodendrogliomas: Gliomas that arise from oligodendrocytes, another type of glial cell in the brain. c. Ependymomas: Gliomas that arise from ependymal cells lining the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord.
23. The cell that act as a support, insulate and metabolically assist the neural tissue is known as:
a. Meninges cells
b. Glial cells
c. Malila cells
d. Neural cells
Answer: b. Glial cells
Description:Glial cells, also called neuroglia or simply glia, are non-neuronal cells that provide support and protection to the neurons (nerve cells) in the nervous system. They play crucial roles in maintaining the structural integrity of the nervous system, providing insulation (myelin sheath) around nerve fibers, and assisting with various metabolic functions, including nutrient supply to neurons. The other options are not correct: a. Neural cells: This is a general term that includes both neurons and glial cells. Neurons are responsible for transmitting electrical signals in the nervous system, while glial cells support their functions. c. Malila cells: There is no known cell type called "Malila cells" in the context of neuroscience or neuroanatomy. d. Meninges cells: The meninges are the protective membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, but there is no specific cell type called "meninges cells." Glial cells are the ones responsible for supporting and protecting neural tissue.
24. The patient MRI shows the presence of a brain tumor. The nurse expect which of the following treatment modality is suitable for the patient?
a. Surgical procedures
b. Radiation therapy
c. Biologic drugs administration
d. Chemotherapy
Answer: a. Surgical procedures
Description:Glial cells are the supporting cells of the nervous system. They outnumber neurons by about 10 to 1. Glial cells perform a variety of functions, including: Supporting neurons: Glial cells provide physical support for neurons and help to keep them in place. Insulating neurons: Glial cells form a fatty sheath around neurons called myelin. Myelin insulates neurons and helps to speed up the transmission of nerve signals. Metabolically assisting neurons: Glial cells provide nutrients and oxygen to neurons and help to remove waste products. Protecting neurons: Glial cells help to protect neurons from damage. There are different types of glial cells, including: Astrocytes: Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell. They provide support for neurons and help to regulate the flow of nutrients and oxygen to neurons. Oligodendrocytes: Oligodendrocytes form the myelin sheath around neurons. Microglia: Microglia are the immune cells of the nervous system. They help to protect neurons from infection and damage. Ependymal cells: Ependymal cells line the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. They produce cerebrospinal fluid, which helps to protect and nourish the brain and spinal cord.
25. Bening tumor of bone is:
a. Osteoma
b. Osteogenic sarcoma
c. Ewing’s sarcoma
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma
Answer: a. Osteoma
Description:Surgery is a common treatment option for brain tumors, especially if the tumor is accessible and can be safely removed without causing significant damage to critical brain structures. The goal of surgery is to remove as much of the tumor as possible to relieve pressure on the brain, reduce symptoms, and obtain a tissue sample for further diagnosis and staging. While chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and biologic drug administration are also used in the treatment of certain brain tumors, the initial and most direct approach for many brain tumors is surgical intervention. The choice of treatment depends on the type, location, size, and grade of the brain tumor, as well as the overall health and condition of the patient.
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