NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 132
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1. Which of the following intervention helps to reduce the calcium level?
a. Encourage the consumption of fluids
b. Radiation therapy
c. Provide adequate range of motion exercise
d. Give fiber-rich foods
Answer: a. Encourage the consumption of fluids
Description:Hypercalcemia is a condition in which the calcium level in the blood is too high. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including cancer, kidney disease, and certain medications. One of the most important ways to reduce the calcium level is to encourage the consumption of fluids. This is because fluids help to dilute the calcium in the blood. Other interventions that can help to reduce the calcium level include: Diuretics: Diuretics help to increase the amount of urine that is produced, which can help to flush out excess calcium. Calcium binders: Calcium binders bind to calcium in the gut and prevent it from being absorbed. Radiation therapy: Radiation therapy can help to destroy cancer cells that are producing excess calcium. If you have hypercalcemia, it is important to see a doctor right away. Hypercalcemia can be a serious condition, but it is treatable. The other options are not interventions that help to reduce the calcium level. b. Provide adequate range of motion exercise: Range of motion exercises help to keep the joints healthy and flexible. They do not help to reduce the calcium level. c. Give fiber-rich foods: Fiber-rich foods help to keep the digestive system healthy. They do not help to reduce the calcium level. d. Radiation therapy: Radiation therapy is used to treat cancer. It does not help to reduce the calcium level.
2. Multiple myeloma commonly affects the age group of:
a. Between 15 to 40
b. Between 30 to 40
c. Younger than 15 years
d. Above 60 years
Answer: d. Above 60 years
Description:Multiple myeloma is more prevalent in older individuals, and the risk of developing this condition increases with age. While it can occur at any age, the majority of cases are diagnosed in people over the age of 60. The exact age range may vary, but the disease is most commonly seen in older adults.
3. The client with multiple myeloma is at the risk of:
a. Pathological fractures
b. Night sweats
c. Dysuria
d. Hematuria
Answer: a. Pathological fractures
Description:Multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells, which are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies. Plasma cells are found in the bone marrow, and multiple myeloma can cause damage to the bone marrow. This can lead to a number of complications, including pathological fractures. Pathological fractures are fractures that occur in bones that have been weakened by cancer. They are often caused by minor trauma, such as a fall or a bump. Pathological fractures can be very painful, and they can lead to deformity and disability. Other complications of multiple myeloma include: Anemia: Anemia is a condition in which the body does not have enough red blood cells. This can cause fatigue, shortness of breath, and pale skin. Renal failure: Multiple myeloma can damage the kidneys. This can lead to kidney failure, which is a serious condition. Hypercalcemia: Hypercalcemia is a condition in which the calcium level in the blood is too high. This can cause a variety of symptoms, including nausea, vomiting, and confusion. If you have multiple myeloma, it is important to see a doctor right away. Multiple myeloma is a treatable cancer, but it is important to diagnose it early. The other options are not as likely complications of multiple myeloma. Dysuria: Dysuria is pain or difficulty urinating. It is not a common complication of multiple myeloma. Hematuria: Hematuria is blood in the urine. It is not a common complication of multiple myeloma. Night sweats: Night sweats are not a common complication of multiple myeloma.
4. Which of the following lab findings is not seen in patient with multiple myeloma?
a. Hypouricemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Thrombocytopenia
Answer: b. Hypocalcemia
Description:The lab finding that is not typically seen in patients with multiple myeloma is: b. Hypocalcemia. Multiple myeloma is a condition characterized by the overproduction of abnormal plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the production of excessive monoclonal antibodies. Some common lab findings associated with multiple myeloma include: a. Hypercalcemia: Increased levels of calcium in the blood can occur due to the breakdown of bones by the myeloma cells, releasing calcium into the bloodstream. c. Hypouricemia: This is not commonly seen in multiple myeloma. Instead, increased uric acid levels (hyperuricemia) may be observed due to the breakdown of nucleic acids from the excessive turnover of abnormal plasma cells. d. Thrombocytopenia: Reduced platelet count can be seen in multiple myeloma due to the bone marrow's infiltration by the abnormal plasma cells, leading to impaired production of platelets. Hypocalcemia (option b) is not typically associated with multiple myeloma. In fact, hypercalcemia (increased calcium levels) is more commonly observed due to the bone destruction caused by the myeloma cells, which releases calcium into the bloodstream.
5. Which of the following drug therapy is necessary to slow down the bone damage and reduce the pain in patients with multiple myeloma?
a. Bisphosphonate
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Analgesics
Answer: a. Bisphosphonate
Description:Bisphosphonates are specific inhibitors of osteoclastic activity and are used in the treatment of patients with multiple myeloma (MM). It is also found to be effective in reducing pain and vertebral pain
6. Which of the following statement is correct regarding multiple myeloma?
a. It is due to the excessive number of abnormal plasma cells invade the bone marrow
b. it is due to overproduction of leukocytes.
c. It is due to the demyelination of myelin sheaths
c. It is due to the overproduction of leukocytes.
Answer: a. It is due to the excessive number of abnormal plasma cells invade the bone marrow
Description:It is due to the excessive number of abnormal plasma cells invade the bone marrow. Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells. Plasma cells are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies. In multiple myeloma, there is an overproduction of abnormal plasma cells in the bone marrow. These abnormal plasma cells can damage bones and other organs. The other options are not correct. b. It is due to the demyelination of myelin sheaths: Myelin sheaths are the protective layer around nerve cells. Demyelination is the destruction of myelin sheaths. Multiple myeloma does not cause demyelination. c. It is due to the overproduction of leukocytes: Leukocytes are a type of white blood cell. Multiple myeloma does not cause an overproduction of leukocytes. d. it is due to overproduction of leukocytes: This option is the same as option c.
7. Which of the following lab tests helps to find out the abnormal number of immature plasma cells?
a. Complete blood test
b. Bone marrow aspiration
c. CSF analysis
d. Urine analysis
Answer: b. Bone marrow aspiration
Description:Bone marrow aspiration is a diagnostic procedure in which a small sample of bone marrow is collected, usually from the hipbone (iliac crest), using a needle. The bone marrow sample is then examined under a microscope to assess the composition of different cells, including immature plasma cells. In multiple myeloma, the abnormal plasma cells, also known as myeloma cells, proliferate in the bone marrow. By performing a bone marrow aspiration and analyzing the sample, doctors can identify the presence of abnormal plasma cells and determine their number. This is crucial in diagnosing multiple myeloma and assessing the extent of plasma cell involvement in the bone marrow. Other lab tests, such as complete blood tests, urine analysis, and CSF analysis, may provide valuable information in the diagnosis and management of multiple myeloma, but bone marrow aspiration is specifically used to evaluate the bone marrow and identify abnormal plasma cells.
8. The bone marrow engraftment process take upto:
a. 1 to 4 weeks
b. 6 to 10 weeks
c. 2 to 5 weeks
d. 1 to 2 weeks
Answer: c. 2 to 5 weeks
Description:Bone marrow engraftment is the process by which donor stem cells take over the function of the bone marrow in a recipient. This process usually takes 2 to 5 weeks. During the first week after transplantation, the donor stem cells begin to multiply in the bone marrow. By the second week, the number of donor stem cells has increased enough to start producing blood cells. However, it may take several weeks for the blood cell counts to reach normal levels. There are a few factors that can affect the speed of bone marrow engraftment. These include the type of transplant, the age of the recipient, and the health of the recipient's immune system.
9. Which site is best for bone marrow transplantation for adults?
a. Iliac rest
b. Femur
c. Sternum
d. Tibia.
Answer: a. Iliac rest
Description:The iliac crest, which is located on the hipbone, is the most commonly used site for bone marrow aspiration and transplantation in adult patients. The bone marrow contains hematopoietic stem cells that can be harvested from the iliac crest and used for transplantation in patients with various conditions, including certain types of cancers, such as leukemia and lymphoma, as well as other blood disorders. While bone marrow can also be aspirated from other sites like the femur (option b), sternum (option c), and tibia (option d), the iliac crest is preferred due to its accessibility, ease of aspiration, and the relatively larger quantity of bone marrow available for transplantation. The choice of the site may vary depending on the patient's specific medical condition and the preference of the healthcare team. However, the iliac crest remains one of the most common and suitable sites for bone marrow transplantation in adult patients.
10. PBSCT stands for:
a. Peripheral blood stem cell transplantation
b. Peripheral body stem cell transplantation
c. Pulmonary breast stem cell transplantation
d. Pulmonary blood stem cell transplantation
Answer: a. Peripheral blood stem cell transplantation
Description:PBSCT stands for peripheral blood stem cell transplantation. It is a type of bone marrow transplant that uses stem cells that are collected from the blood. These stem cells are then infused back into the recipient's body. PBSCT is a less invasive procedure than traditional bone marrow transplantation. It is also a faster procedure, as the stem cells do not need to be harvested from the bone marrow. PBSCT is typically used to treat leukemia, lymphoma, and other blood disorders. It is also used to treat some solid tumors.
11. The stem cell which is taken from and identical twin is called:
a. Autologous
b. None of the above.
c. Syngeneic
d. Allogenic
Answer: c. Syngeneic
Description:Syngeneic stem cell transplantation refers to a type of hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) where the stem cells are obtained from an identical twin sibling of the recipient. In this case, the donor and recipient are genetically identical because they come from the same fertilized egg, making them syngeneic or monozygotic twins. The other options listed are different types of stem cell transplantation: a. Allogeneic stem cell transplantation: Stem cells are obtained from a genetically matched but non-identical donor, such as a sibling, parent, or unrelated donor. b. Autologous stem cell transplantation: Stem cells are collected from the patient's own body (usually bone marrow or peripheral blood) before high-dose chemotherapy or radiation. These collected stem cells are then infused back into the patient after the cancer treatment to help regenerate healthy blood cells. d. None of the above: This option is incorrect since syngeneic stem cell transplantation (option c) is the correct answer for stem cells taken from an identical twin.
12. The stem cells used in the peripheral blood stem cell transplantation (PBSCT) should come from the process of:
a. Dialysis
b. Apheresis
c. Leukapheresis
d. Both b and c
Answer: b. Apheresis
Description:Peripheral blood stem cell transplantation (PBSCT) involves the collection of hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) from the peripheral blood. The process of obtaining these stem cells is called apheresis. Apheresis is a procedure where blood is drawn from a donor (the person donating the stem cells) through a special machine. This machine separates the stem cells from the other components of the blood, such as red blood cells and plasma. The remaining blood components are then returned to the donor's body, while the stem cells are collected and used for transplantation.
13. Which type of donor stem cell is most common?
a. Allogenic
b. Syngeneic
c. Autologous
d. None of these
Answer: a. Allogenic
Description:Allogenic stem cells are the most common type of donor stem cell. They are stem cells that are donated from a person who is not the recipient. Allogenic stem cells are used in bone marrow transplants to replace the recipient's damaged or diseased bone marrow. Autologous stem cells are stem cells that are taken from the recipient's own body. They are then stored and used in a bone marrow transplant if the recipient needs it. Autologous stem cells are not as common as allogenic stem cells, but they are becoming more common as the technology for storing and using them improves. Syngeneic stem cells are stem cells that are donated from an identical twin. They are the most compatible type of donor stem cell, but they are also the rarest. Syngeneic stem cells are only used in a small number of bone marrow transplants.
14. Which type of donor marrow should be transplanted immediately?
a. Syngeneic
b. Xenologous
c. Autologous
d. Allogenic
Answer: c. Autologous
Description:Autologous stem cell transplantation involves using a patient's own stem cells for the transplantation. The stem cells are collected from the patient's bone marrow or peripheral blood before undergoing high-dose chemotherapy or radiation to treat certain cancers or other disorders. After the cancer treatment, the collected stem cells are infused back into the patient to help regenerate healthy blood cells. The advantage of autologous stem cell transplantation is that the patient receives their own genetically compatible stem cells, reducing the risk of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) and other complications associated with allogeneic transplants, where stem cells are obtained from a donor. Allogenic (a) refers to the use of stem cells from a genetically matched but non-identical donor, such as a sibling or unrelated donor. Syngeneic (b) refers to the use of stem cells from an identical twin. Xenologous (d) refers to the use of stem cells from a different species, which is not a standard practice in human medicine. So, for immediate transplantation, autologous stem cell transplantation is the appropriate choice when using the patient's own stem cells.
15. Which type of donor marrow is frozen for the later use?
b. Syngeneic
d. Xenologous
c. Autologous
a. Allogenic
Answer: c. Autologous
Description:Autologous stem cells are the cells that are taken from the recipient's own body and stored for later use. They are not taken from another person, so they are not subject to the same risks of rejection as allogenic or syngeneic stem cells. Autologous stem cells are typically frozen for later use in bone marrow transplantation. They can also be used in other types of stem cell therapies, such as those used to treat cancer. The other options are not correct. Allogenic stem cells: Allogenic stem cells are donated from another person. They are not frozen for later use, as they are typically used immediately after they are donated. Syngeneic stem cells: Syngeneic stem cells are donated from an identical twin. They are the most compatible type of donor stem cell, but they are also the rarest. Syngeneic stem cells are not frozen for later use, as they are typically used immediately after they are donated. Xenogeneic stem cells: Xenogeneic stem cells are donated from another species. They are not used in humans, as they are highly likely to be rejected by the recipient's immune system.
16. All of the following are the common signs and symptoms of acute graft versus host disease; EXCEPT:
a. Dermatitis
b. Hepatitis
c. Rashes
d. Vision changes
Answer: d. Vision changes
Description:• Graft versus host disease (GVHD) are multisystem disorders that can be life-threatening complication of allogenic hematopoietic cell transplant. Acute GVHD typically occurs within 100 days after the stem cell transplantation. Symptoms of acute GVHD include dermatitis, abdominal pain, blood in stool, etc. • Chronic GVHD usually begin after the first 100 days following a transplant. Signs and symptoms of chronic GVHD includes dryness of eyes, vision changes, mouth pain, white patches in mouth, dysphagia, hair loss, wheezing, shortness of breath, joint pain, fatigue, loss of appetite, weight loss, etc.
17. Which among the following is not present in tumor lysis syndrome?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hyperphosphatemia
c. Hyperuricemia
d. Hypercalcemia
Answer: d. Hypercalcemia
Description:Tumor lysis syndrome is a group of metabolic complications that can occur when cancer cells are rapidly destroyed. These cells release their contents into the bloodstream, which can lead to electrolyte imbalances, kidney failure, and other problems. The most common electrolyte imbalances in tumor lysis syndrome are hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperuricemia. Hypercalcemia is not typically seen in tumor lysis syndrome. Other symptoms of tumor lysis syndrome can include: Acidosis: Acidosis is a condition in which the blood becomes too acidic. Hyponatremia: Hyponatremia is a condition in which the blood becomes too dilute. Thrombosis: Thrombosis is the formation of blood clots. Kidney failure: Kidney failure is a serious condition in which the kidneys can no longer function properly. If you have any of the symptoms of tumor lysis syndrome, it is important to see a doctor right away. Tumor lysis syndrome is a serious condition, but it is treatable. Here are some additional information about tumor lysis syndrome: Cause: Tumor lysis syndrome is caused by the rapid destruction of cancer cells. This can occur during chemotherapy or radiation therapy. Treatment: Treatment for tumor lysis syndrome is aimed at stabilizing the patient's electrolytes and preventing further complications. This may include fluids, medications, and dialysis. Prognosis: The prognosis for tumor lysis syndrome depends on the underlying cancer and the severity of the electrolyte imbalances. However, with prompt diagnosis and treatment, most patients with tumor lysis syndrome make a full recovery.
18. Which type of cancer has the poorest prognosis?
a. Breast cancer
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Pancreatic cancer
d. Gastric cancer.
Answer: c. Pancreatic cancer
Description:• As per the data of National Cancer Institute’s Surveillance, Epidemiology and End Results program as well as American Cancer Society (ACS). Type of cancer has the poorest prognosis are arranged in order as follows: • Pancreatic cancer • Liver and intrahepatic bile duct cancer. • Lung and bronchus cancer • Esophageal cancer • Stomach cancer or gastric cancer
19. Glandular tissue cancer is known as:
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Liposarcoma
d. Osteogenic sarcoma
Answer: a. Adenocarcinoma
Description:Adenocarcinoma is a type of cancer that starts in glandular tissue. Glandular tissue is found in many organs, including the breast, colon, and prostate. Adenocarcinoma is the most common type of cancer in the breast. Other types of glandular tissue cancer include: Lung adenocarcinoma: Lung adenocarcinoma is a type of lung cancer that starts in the glandular tissue of the lungs. Prostate adenocarcinoma: Prostate adenocarcinoma is a type of prostate cancer that starts in the glandular tissue of the prostate. Breast adenocarcinoma: Breast adenocarcinoma is a type of breast cancer that starts in the glandular tissue of the breast. The symptoms of glandular tissue cancer can vary depending on the organ where the cancer starts. However, some common symptoms include: A lump: A lump is a common symptom of glandular tissue cancer. Pain: Pain is another common symptom of glandular tissue cancer. Bleeding: Bleeding is a less common symptom of glandular tissue cancer. Weight loss: Weight loss is a less common symptom of glandular tissue cancer. If you have any of the symptoms of glandular tissue cancer, it is important to see a doctor right away. Glandular tissue cancer is a serious condition, but it is treatable. The treatment for glandular tissue cancer depends on the type of cancer, the stage of the cancer, and the patient's overall health. Treatment options may include surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy.
20. Which of the following is used for the treatment of thyroid cancer?
a. I 131
b. 131I-MIB2
c. 99m Tc
d. 32P
Answer: a. I 131
Description:a. I 131 (Iodine-131). Iodine-131 is a radioactive isotope of iodine that is commonly used in the treatment of thyroid cancer. This treatment is known as radioactive iodine therapy or I-131 therapy. It is effective because the thyroid gland actively takes up and concentrates iodine from the bloodstream. In radioactive iodine therapy, a specific dose of I-131 is given to the patient orally or through an injection. The radioactive iodine is absorbed by any remaining thyroid tissue or thyroid cancer cells in the body. The emitted radiation from the I-131 then helps to destroy the thyroid cancer cells. Option b (99mTc) and option c (32P) are also radioactive isotopes used in various medical imaging and therapeutic procedures, but they are not commonly used for the treatment of thyroid cancer. Option d (131I-MIB2) seems to be a combination of I-131 (radioactive iodine) and MIBG (meta-iodobenzylguanidine), which is used in the treatment of certain neuroendocrine tumors, particularly neuroblastoma and pheochromocytoma, and not specifically for thyroid cancer.
21. Calcitonin is used as a marker in………….cancer:
a. Cancer of lung
b. Cancer of thyroid
c. Cancer of oral cavity
d. Prostate cancer
Answer: b. Cancer of thyroid
Description:Calcitonin is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It helps to regulate calcium levels in the blood. Calcitonin levels can be used as a marker for cancer of the thyroid. In people with thyroid cancer, the calcitonin levels are often elevated. This is because the cancer cells produce calcitonin. Elevated calcitonin levels can be a sign of cancer, but they can also be caused by other conditions, such as chronic kidney disease. If you have elevated calcitonin levels, your doctor may recommend further testing to determine if you have cancer. This may include a biopsy of the thyroid gland. Other symptoms of thyroid cancer can include: A lump in the neck: A lump in the neck is the most common symptom of thyroid cancer. Hoarseness: Hoarseness is another common symptom of thyroid cancer. Pain in the neck: Pain in the neck is a less common symptom of thyroid cancer. Weight loss: Weight loss is a less common symptom of thyroid cancer. If you have any of the symptoms of thyroid cancer, it is important to see a doctor right away. Thyroid cancer is a serious condition, but it is treatable. The treatment for thyroid cancer depends on the type of cancer, the stage of the cancer, and the patient's overall health. Treatment options may include surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy.
22. Barrett’s esophagus represents which of the following findings?
a. Cellular hyperplasia
b. Carcinoma is situ
c. Metaplasia
d. Cellular hypertrophy
Answer: c. Metaplasia
Description:Barrett's esophagus is a condition in which the normal cells lining the lower part of the esophagus are replaced by cells that are more similar to the cells lining the intestines. This change in cell type is known as metaplasia. Chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a common risk factor for developing Barrett's esophagus. The stomach acid and digestive enzymes that flow back into the esophagus due to GERD can cause damage to the esophageal lining, leading to the replacement of squamous epithelial cells with intestinal-type columnar cells. Barrett's esophagus is a significant concern because it is considered a premalignant condition. It increases the risk of developing esophageal adenocarcinoma, a type of cancer, although most individuals with Barrett's esophagus do not progress to cancer. Options a (cellular hyperplasia) and b (cellular hypertrophy) refer to an increase in the number of cells and cell size, respectively, which are not the primary features of Barrett's esophagus. Option d (carcinoma in situ) refers to a pre-cancerous condition in which abnormal cells are present but have not yet invaded surrounding tissues. While Barrett's esophagus increases the risk of esophageal cancer, it is not itself considered carcinoma in situ.
23. Tylosis is associated with which cancer:
a. ALL
b. Esophagus
c. Pancreas
d. AML
Answer: b. Esophagus
Description:Tylosis is a rare, inherited condition characterized by thickening of the skin of the palms and soles. It is associated with an increased risk of developing cancer of the esophagus. The exact mechanism by which tylosis increases the risk of esophageal cancer is not fully understood. However, it is thought that the thickened skin may make it more difficult for the esophagus to clear away cancer-causing substances. Tylosis is a relatively rare condition, affecting about 1 in 100,000 people. However, it is much more common in people of Ashkenazi Jewish descent, affecting about 1 in 1,000 people in this population group. If you have tylosis, it is important to be aware of the increased risk of esophageal cancer and to get regular screening tests. There is no cure for tylosis, but there are treatments available to help manage the symptoms. The other options are not correct. Pancreas: Pancreas cancer is a type of cancer that starts in the pancreas. It is not associated with tylosis. AML: Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is a type of cancer that starts in the bone marrow. It is not associated with tylosis. ALL: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that starts in the bone marrow. It is not associated with tylosis.
24. Commonly seen carcinoma in the middle 1/3rd of the esophagus:
a. Adeno carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Leiomyoma
d. Meningioma
Answer: b. Squamous cell carcinoma
Description:Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of esophageal cancer and is often seen in the middle 1/3rd of the esophagus. It arises from the squamous cells that line the inner surface of the esophagus. Esophageal cancer can also be of the adenocarcinoma type (option a), which typically arises in the lower 1/3rd of the esophagus, particularly in the setting of Barrett's esophagus. Options c (Meningioma) and d (Leiomyoma) are not types of esophageal carcinoma. Meningioma is a type of brain tumor, and Leiomyoma is a benign tumor that can arise from smooth muscle cells in various parts of the body but is not typically found in the esophagus.
25. Risk factor for Ca. esophagus is:
a. Smoking
b. Achalasia cardia
c. Chronic Achalasia
d. All of these.
Answer: d. All of these.
Description:All the options listed are risk factors for esophageal cancer (carcinoma of the esophagus): a. Chronic Achalasia: Achalasia is a condition characterized by the inability of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax properly, leading to difficulty in swallowing and the retention of food in the esophagus. Chronic achalasia is considered a risk factor for esophageal cancer, although it is relatively rare. b. Achalasia cardia: Achalasia cardia is another term used to describe achalasia, and as mentioned earlier, it is associated with an increased risk of esophageal cancer. c. Smoking: Smoking tobacco is a well-established risk factor for esophageal cancer, especially squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus. Therefore, the correct answer is d. All of these. Each of these factors can contribute to an increased risk of developing esophageal cancer, either directly or indirectly.
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