NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 134
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1. Correct order of spermatogenesis?
a. Germ cells → spermatogonia →primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → spermatids
b. Germ cells → primary spermatocytes → secondary spermatocytes → sperms → spermatogonia
c. Germ cells → primary spermatocytes → spermatogonia → secondary spermatocytes → sperms
d. Germ cells → primary spermatocytes →secondary spermatocytes → sperms
Answer: a. Germ cells → spermatogonia →primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → spermatids
Description:Germ cells Spermatogonia Primary spermatocytes Secondary spermatocytes Spermatids Sperm Spermatogenesis is the process by which sperm cells are produced in the male testes. It is a complex process that involves a series of steps, starting with germ cells and ending with sperm. The first step in spermatogenesis is the differentiation of germ cells into spermatogonia. Spermatogonia are the stem cells of the testes. They divide mitotically to produce more spermatogonia. Some of the spermatogonia then undergo meiosis, which is a type of cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes in the cell. This produces primary spermatocytes. Primary spermatocytes then divide again by meiosis to produce secondary spermatocytes. Secondary spermatocytes then divide by mitosis to produce spermatids. Spermatids are immature sperm cells. They undergo a series of changes to become mature sperm cells. These changes include the development of the tail and the acrosome, which is a structure that helps the sperm cell to penetrate the egg. Mature sperm cells are then released from the testes into the epididymis, where they mature further. They are then stored in the epididymis until they are ejaculated.
2. Capacitation of sperm means:
a. They become motile
b. Able to fertilize secondary oocyte
c. They can penetrate the cervical mucosa
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Capacitation of sperm refers to the biochemical and physiological changes that occur in spermatozoa within the female reproductive tract, particularly in the uterus and fallopian tubes. These changes are essential for sperm to become fully functional and capable of fertilizing the secondary oocyte (option b). Capacitated sperm gain the ability to penetrate the zona pellucida, a protective layer surrounding the oocyte, and fuse with the oocyte to initiate fertilization. Additionally, capacitation also enables sperm to penetrate the cervical mucosa (option c) as they travel through the female reproductive tract towards the site of fertilization.
3. Time duration for maturation of spermatogonia to mature spermatozoa:
a. 14 days
b. 28 days
c. 61 days
d. 280 days.
Answer: c. 61 days
Description:It takes about 61 days for spermatogonia to mature into mature spermatozoa. This process is divided into two phases: The mitotic phase: This phase lasts for about 28 days and involves the division of spermatogonia by mitosis. This produces more spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes. The meiotic phase: This phase lasts for about 33 days and involves the division of primary spermatocytes by meiosis. This produces secondary spermatocytes and spermatids. Spermatids then undergo a series of changes to become mature sperm cells. These changes include the development of the tail and the acrosome, which is a structure that helps the sperm cell to penetrate the egg. Mature sperm cells are then released from the testes into the epididymis, where they mature further. They are then stored in the epididymis until they are ejaculated. The other options are not correct. a. 14 days: This is the time it takes for spermatogonia to divide by mitosis. b. 28 days: This is the time it takes for spermatogonia to divide by mitosis and for primary spermatocytes to divide by meiosis. d. 280 days: This is the time it takes for a sperm cell to mature from a spermatogonium to a mature spermatozoon.
4. Sperms are produced by the process of:
a. Spermatogenesis
b. Ovulation
c. Oogenesis
d. Gestational
Answer: a. Spermatogenesis
Description:Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm cell development and maturation that occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. It involves the transformation of spermatogonia (diploid cells) into mature spermatozoa (sperm cells). On the other hand, ovulation (option b) is the release of a mature egg (ovum) from the ovary during the menstrual cycle, and oogenesis (option c) is the process of egg cell development in the ovaries. "Gestational" (option d) is not a process related to the production of sperms or eggs. It is typically used to describe anything related to pregnancy, especially the period during which the fetus develops in the womb (gestational period).
5. Most commonly performed test for assessing the adequacy of sperm is:
a. Sperm morphology
b. Sperm motility
c. Sperm count
d. Semen volume
Answer: b. Sperm motility
Description:Sperm motility is the most significant criterion when assessing male infertility. As per WHO 1 mL of semen contain 15 million sperm.
6. Hohner test is used for:
a. To determine the number, motility and activity of sperm
b. To determine ABO incompatibility reaction between mother and newborn
c. To asses the respiratory maturity of newborn
d. To assess the respiratory distress of newborn baby.
Answer: a. To determine the number, motility and activity of sperm
Description:It is a test used in sterility studies that involves postcoital examination of fluid aspirated from the vagina and cervix to determine the presence or survival of sperm in these areas.
7. Semen collection techniques includes:
a. Coitus interruptus
b. Condom collection
c. Epididymal extraction
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:Semen collection is the process of collecting semen for medical or reproductive purposes. There are a number of different semen collection techniques, which can be used depending on the purpose of the collection. Some of the most common semen collection techniques include: Coitus interruptus: This is a method of birth control in which the penis is withdrawn from the vagina before ejaculation. The semen is then collected in a condom or other container. Condom collection: This is a method of semen collection in which a condom is worn during sexual intercourse. The semen is then collected in the condom after ejaculation. Epididymal extraction: This is a surgical procedure in which semen is collected directly from the epididymis. This procedure is usually only performed in cases where other methods of semen collection have been unsuccessful. The semen collection technique that is used will depend on the purpose of the collection. For example, if the semen is being collected for fertility testing, then a condom collection or epididymal extraction may be used. If the semen is being collected for artificial insemination, then a condom collection may be used. It is important to note that some semen collection techniques may not be appropriate for everyone. For example, condom collection may not be appropriate for people who are allergic to latex.
8. Correct regarding semen collection include:
a. Provide a fresh sample
b. Sample should be refrigerated
c. Patient can continue with sexual activity, no need of any abstinence
d. All of the above.
Answer: a. Provide a fresh sample
Description:a. Provide a fresh sample: Semen samples are typically collected in a sterile container and should be provided as fresh as possible for accurate analysis. b. Sample should be refrigerated: If the semen sample cannot be tested immediately, it should be refrigerated to maintain its viability until testing can be performed. However, it is important to note that refrigeration may affect the semen's motility and other characteristics. c. Patient can continue with sexual activity, no need for any abstinence: If a patient is asked to provide a semen sample for testing or fertility evaluation, they might be instructed to abstain from sexual activity and ejaculation for a specific period before collecting the sample. However, this is not always necessary, and some tests can be conducted on semen samples collected after sexual activity.
9. Gross examination of semen does include:
a. Volume
b. Color
c. Viscosity
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:Gross examination of semen is a physical examination of semen that is performed to assess its appearance and characteristics. This examination is usually performed as part of a fertility test. The three main parameters that are assessed during gross examination of semen are: Volume: The volume of semen is usually measured in milliliters. The normal volume of semen is about 2-5 mL. Color: The color of semen is usually white or off-white. However, it can also be slightly yellow or brown. Viscosity: The viscosity of semen is a measure of its thickness. The normal viscosity of semen is about the same as that of egg whites. Other parameters that may be assessed during gross examination of semen include: Liquefaction time: The liquefaction time is the time it takes for semen to liquefy after ejaculation. The normal liquefaction time is about 15-30 minutes. pH: The pH of semen is usually about 7.2-7.8. Odor: The odor of semen is usually described as being slightly sweet or musky. Any abnormalities in the gross appearance of semen may be a sign of a fertility problem. For example, a low volume of semen may be a sign of a problem with the testicles or the epididymis. A change in the color of semen may be a sign of an infection. A change in the viscosity of semen may be a sign of a problem with the prostate gland. It is important to note that gross examination of semen is only a preliminary assessment of semen quality. More detailed tests, such as semen analysis, are usually required to assess fertility.
10. Which of the following is not a microscopic examination of semen?
a. Counting
b. Motility
c. pH
d. Viability
Answer: c. pH
Description:Microscopic examination of semen typically involves the analysis of sperm count (a), sperm motility (b), and sperm viability (d). These parameters help assess the overall quality and fertility potential of the semen sample. The pH of semen is generally measured, but it is not a microscopic examination. It is usually determined using pH strips or a pH meter and provides information about the acidity or alkalinity of the semen.
11. Semen pH level is:
a. 3.2-4.8
b. 4.2-5.8
c. 5.2-6.8
d. 7.2-7.8
Answer: d. 7.2-7.8
Description:The pH of semen is usually about 7.2-7.8. This is slightly alkaline, which helps to protect sperm cells from the acidity of the vagina. The pH of semen is maintained by a number of different factors, including the secretions of the prostate gland, the seminal vesicles, and the epididymis. A change in the pH of semen may be a sign of a fertility problem. For example, a low pH may be a sign of an infection. A high pH may be a sign of a problem with the prostate gland. It is important to note that the pH of semen can vary depending on a number of factors, including the time since ejaculation, the diet, and the medications that are taken.
12. Solution used for bladder irrigation during TURP is:
a. NS
b. RL
c. Glycine
d. Sterile water
Answer: c. Glycine
Description:During TURP, glycine solution (also known as glycine irrigating solution) is commonly used for bladder irrigation. It helps to distend the bladder and wash out the small tissue particles and blood that may accumulate during the surgical procedure.
13. Normal level of PSA is:
a. 5-8 ng/ml
b. 0.3-0.8 ng/ml
c. 1-4 ng/ml
d. 4-5 ng/ml
Answer: c. 1-4 ng/ml
Description:PSA is a protein produced by the prostate gland, and its level in the blood can help in the detection of prostate-related conditions, including prostate cancer. However, it is essential to note that the "normal" PSA level can vary slightly depending on age, ethnicity, and other factors. Generally, a PSA level of 4 ng/ml or lower is considered normal, but some medical professionals may use a range of 1-4 ng/ml as a guideline.
14. Congenital factor related to male that is responsible for infertility includes:
a. Undescended tests
b. Hypospadias
c. Kartagener
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:a. Undescended testes (cryptorchidism) - It refers to the condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum from the abdomen during fetal development. This can lead to impaired sperm production and fertility issues. b. Hypospadias - It is a congenital condition in males where the opening of the urethra is located on the underside of the penis rather than at the tip. This abnormal positioning can affect sperm deposition during sexual intercourse and may lead to infertility. c. Kartagener syndrome (primary ciliary dyskinesia) - While it is not directly related to male infertility, it is a congenital disorder that can affect the function of cilia in the respiratory tract and reproductive organs. Impaired cilia function in the reproductive tract can contribute to fertility problems.
15. All among the following are characterized by raised scrotal temperature; EXCEPT:
a. Varicocele
b. Big hydrocele
c. Filariasis
d. BPH
Answer: d. BPH
Description:BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, which is located in the pelvic region and not in the scrotum. It does not directly affect scrotal temperature. On the other hand, the other conditions listed are associated with raised scrotal temperature: a. Varicocele - Enlargement of veins within the scrotum, leading to increased blood flow and potential elevation of scrotal temperature. b. Big hydrocele - A collection of fluid within the scrotum, which can increase scrotal temperature due to inflammation. c. Filariasis - A parasitic infection caused by filarial worms, which can lead to lymphatic obstruction and swelling in the scrotum, resulting in raised scrotal temperature.
16. Education to a client who is undergoing antibiotic therapy for chronic bacterial prostatitis include:
a. Surgery is needed
b. Prolonged hospital stay is recommended.
c. Long-term therapy may be indicated to immune compromised client.
d. It can lead to BPH
Answer: c. Long-term therapy may be indicated to immune compromised client.
Description:Chronic bacterial prostatitis is a long-term condition that can be difficult to treat. Antibiotic therapy is usually the first line of treatment, but it may not be effective in all cases. In some cases, long-term therapy may be needed, especially for immune compromised clients. Other education points to a client who is undergoing antibiotic therapy for chronic bacterial prostatitis include: The importance of completing the full course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve. The signs and symptoms of a reaction to antibiotics, such as rash, hives, or difficulty breathing. The importance of following up with the doctor to monitor the progress of treatment. It is important to note that chronic bacterial prostatitis is not a sexually transmitted infection. However, it can be spread through contact with infected urine or semen. If you are concerned about chronic bacterial prostatitis, it is important to talk to your doctor. They can assess your symptoms and recommend the best course of treatment.
17. Early clinical manifestations of Nodular Hyperplasia of prostate (NHP) include:
a. Frequency of urine
b. Nocturia
c. Overflow drubbing
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:Early clinical manifestations of Nodular Hyperplasia of the prostate (NHP), also known as Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH), include: d. All of these. NHP/BPH can present with a variety of urinary symptoms due to the enlargement of the prostate gland, which can compress the urethra and obstruct the flow of urine. The early clinical manifestations may include: a. Frequency of urine - Increased frequency of urination, where a person feels the need to urinate more often than usual. b. Nocturia - Waking up at night to urinate multiple times, disrupting sleep. c. Overflow dribbling - Difficulty in initiating urination, weak urine stream, and dribbling of urine even after urination is completed. Other symptoms that may occur as the condition progresses include urgency, difficulty starting urination, a feeling of incomplete emptying, and urinary retention.
18. BPH is:
a. Hyperplasia of stromal cells
b. Hyperplasia of epithelial cells
c. Hyperplasia of endothelial cells
d. Both a and b
Answer: d. Both a and b
Description:Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a noncancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that occurs in men as they age. It is caused by the growth of both stromal cells and epithelial cells in the prostate gland. Stromal cells are the supporting cells in the prostate gland. Epithelial cells are the cells that line the ducts and alveoli of the prostate gland. The growth of these cells can cause the prostate gland to enlarge and press on the urethra, which can cause problems with urination. BPH is a common condition, affecting about half of men over the age of 50 and up to 90% of men over the age of 80. There is no cure for BPH, but there are treatments that can help to relieve the symptoms. The symptoms of BPH can include: Difficulty starting to urinate Weak or interrupted flow of urine Frequent urination, especially at night A feeling of incomplete emptying of the bladder Painful urination
19. BPH develops from which zone of prostate gland?
a. Peripheral zone
b. Transition zone
c. Central zone
d. Both a and b
Answer: b. Transition zone
Description:The prostate gland is divided into several zones based on its anatomy. The transition zone is the innermost zone surrounding the urethra, and it is the area where BPH usually originates. As BPH progresses, it can lead to the enlargement of the transition zone, causing urinary symptoms due to compression of the urethra.
20. Hormonal cause behind BPH is:
a. Estrogen
b. Testosterone
c. Dihydrotestosterone
d. Progesterone
Answer: c. Dihydrotestosterone
Description:Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is a hormone that is produced from testosterone. DHT is thought to be the main hormone that causes BPH. Testosterone is a hormone that is produced in the testicles. It is responsible for a number of functions in men, including sexual development and reproduction. Estrogen is a hormone that is produced in the ovaries in women. It is also produced in small amounts in men. Estrogen is not thought to play a role in BPH. Progesterone is a hormone that is produced in the ovaries in women. It is also produced in small amounts in men. Progesterone is not thought to play a role in BPH. BPH is a complex condition, and the exact cause is not fully understood. However, it is thought that DHT plays a key role in the development of the condition. DHT is a more potent form of testosterone. It is produced by the enzyme 5-alpha reductase, which is found in the prostate gland. DHT binds to receptors in the prostate gland, which causes the cells to grow. The level of DHT in the body increases with age. This is why BPH is more common in older men. There are a number of treatments available for BPH. Some of the most common treatments include: Medications: There are a number of medications that can help to reduce the size of the prostate gland and relieve the symptoms of BPH. Surgery: Surgery may be an option for men who do not respond to medication or who have severe symptoms. Lifestyle changes: There are a number of lifestyle changes that can help to relieve the symptoms of BPH, such as drinking less fluids before bed, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, and exercising regularly. If you are experiencing symptoms of BPH, it is important to talk to your doctor. They can assess your symptoms and recommend the best course of treatment.
21. Which of the following drug can aggravate BPH?
a. Inhalational ipratropium
b. Timolol
c. Oral hypoglycemic agents
d. Calcium channel blockers.
Answer: d. Calcium channel blockers.
Description:Calcium channel blockers are medications used to treat conditions like high blood pressure (hypertension) and certain heart conditions. However, they have been associated with worsening urinary symptoms in some individuals with BPH. These drugs can cause relaxation of smooth muscle, including the smooth muscle in the prostate and the bladder neck, potentially leading to increased difficulty in urination. The other options (a. Inhalational ipratropium, b. Timolol, and c. Oral hypoglycemic agents) are not typically known to aggravate BPH.
22. Which among the following sign and symptom can be seen in BPH?
a. Difficulty in initiating voiding
b. Incomplete bladder emptying
c. Dribbling at the end of urination
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:BPH, or Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that occurs in men as they age. The prostate gland is located below the bladder and surrounds the urethra, the tube that carries urine out of the body. As the prostate gland enlarges, it can put pressure on the urethra, making it difficult to urinate. The three main symptoms of BPH are: Difficulty in initiating voiding: This means that it may be difficult to start urinating. Incomplete bladder emptying: This means that it may feel like the bladder is not completely empty after urinating. Dribbling at the end of urination: This means that there may be some urine that leaks out after urination has stopped. Other symptoms of BPH can include: Frequent urination, especially at night: This is known as nocturia. Weak or interrupted flow of urine: This means that the urine stream may be weak or interrupted. Painful urination: This can be a sign of a urinary tract infection. If you are experiencing any of these symptoms, it is important to talk to your doctor. They can assess your symptoms and recommend the best course of treatment. There are a number of treatments available for BPH. Some of the most common treatments include: Medications: There are a number of medications that can help to reduce the size of the prostate gland and relieve the symptoms of BPH. Surgery: Surgery may be an option for men who do not respond to medication or who have severe symptoms. Lifestyle changes: There are a number of lifestyle changes that can help to relieve the symptoms of BPH, such as drinking less fluids before bed, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, and exercising regularly.
23. In BPH difficulty in initially voiding and a feeling of incomplete bladder emptying is because of:
a. Urethral obstruction
b. Inflammation of the prostate
c. Low bladder tone
d. VUR
Answer: a. Urethral obstruction
Description:In BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia), the difficulty in initially voiding (initiating urination) and the feeling of incomplete bladder emptying are primarily caused by: a. Urethral obstruction. As the prostate gland enlarges in BPH, it can compress and narrow the urethra, which is the tube that carries urine from the bladder out of the body. This urethral obstruction leads to difficulty in starting the flow of urine and a sensation of incomplete emptying of the bladder. The obstruction hinders the smooth flow of urine and creates urinary symptoms like hesitancy, weak urine stream, and the feeling of not fully emptying the bladder. The other options (b. Inflammation of the prostate, c. Low bladder tone, and d. VUR - Vesicoureteral reflux) are not typical causes of the urinary symptoms in BPH.
24. Which of the following statement regarding relationship between prostate cancer and BPH is true?
a. Prostate cancer is caused by BPH
b. BPH and prostate cancer are unrelated
c. BPH is a symptom of prostate cancer
d. None of the above
Answer: b. BPH and prostate cancer are unrelated
Description:Prostate cancer is a type of cancer that starts in the prostate gland. BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland. The two conditions are not related. It is possible for a man to have both BPH and prostate cancer, but the two conditions are not caused by each other. In fact, having BPH does not increase your risk of developing prostate cancer. The symptoms of BPH and prostate cancer can be similar, so it is important to see a doctor if you are experiencing any of the following: Difficulty starting to urinate Weak or interrupted flow of urine Frequent urination, especially at night A feeling of incomplete emptying of the bladder Painful urination Your doctor can perform a physical exam and order tests to determine if you have BPH, prostate cancer, or another condition. If you are diagnosed with BPH, there are a number of treatments available that can help to relieve the symptoms. If you are diagnosed with prostate cancer, there are a number of treatment options available, depending on the stage of the cancer.
25. Which of the following is true about benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)?
a. It causes urethral obstruction.
b. Hydronephrosis and renal failure are its complication
c. Digital rectal examination is used for diagnosing this condition.
d. All of above
Answer: d. All of above
Description:Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) is a condition in which the prostate gland enlarges and can cause various urinary symptoms. All of the statements mentioned are true about BPH: a. It causes urethral obstruction: As the prostate gland enlarges, it can compress and narrow the urethra, leading to urinary obstruction and difficulties in urination. b. Hydronephrosis and renal failure are its complications: In severe cases of BPH, the obstruction of the urinary flow can cause a backup of urine, leading to the dilation of the kidneys (hydronephrosis) and potentially causing kidney damage and renal failure if left untreated. c. Digital rectal examination is used for diagnosing this condition: Digital rectal examination (DRE) is a common physical examination technique used by healthcare providers to assess the size, shape, and consistency of the prostate gland. It helps in detecting enlargement and other abnormalities associated with BPH.
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