NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 139
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1. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for the diagnosis of prostate cancer?
a. Digital rectal examination
b. Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
c. Prostate biopsy
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Description:The diagnostic test for the diagnosis of prostate cancer is "All of the above" (Digital rectal examination, Prostate specific antigen (PSA), and Prostate biopsy).
2. Which of the following is a malignant tumor of the connective tissue?
a. Sarcoma
b. Carcinoma
c. Osteoma
d. Glaucoma
Answer: a. Sarcoma
Description:All of the above" (Digital rectal examination, Prostate specific antigen (PSA), and Prostate biopsy) are diagnostic tests for prostate cancer, each providing valuable information to aid in the diagnosis process.
3. Which of the following is a malignant tumor of the bone?
a. Fibrosarcoma
b. Lipoma
c. Osteogenic sarcoma
d. Osteoma
Answer: c. Osteogenic sarcoma
Description:The malignant tumor of the bone is Osteogenic sarcoma (option c), whereas the other options (Fibrosarcoma, Lipoma, and Osteoma) are not bone malignancies.
4. The patient with leukemia is receiving busulfan (Myeloma) and allopurinol (Zyloprim). The nurse tells the patient that the purpose of the allopurinol is to prevent…………?
a. Alopecia
b. Hyperuricemia
c. Vomiting
d. Nausea
Answer: b. Hyperuricemia
Description:The purpose of allopurinol is to prevent hyperuricemia (option b) in leukemia patients receiving busulfan. Hyperuricemia is an elevated level of uric acid in the blood, and allopurinol helps to reduce its levels and prevent associated complications.
5. At the time of diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, which of the following area is often involved?
a. Back
b. Neck
c. Chest
d. Groin
Answer: b. Neck
Description:At the time of diagnosis of Hodgkin's lymphoma, the neck (option b) is often involved, and patients may present with swollen lymph nodes in this area.
6. A 36 year old man with lymphoma presents with signs of impending septic shock 9 days after chemotherapy. The nurse could expect which of the following to be present?
a. Flushing, decreased oxygen saturation, mild hypotension
b. Low grade fever, chills, tachycardia
c. Elevated temperature, oliguria, hypotension.
d. High grade fever, normal blood pressure, increased respirations.
Answer: b. Low grade fever, chills, tachycardia
Description:The nurse could expect the patient with lymphoma and signs of impending septic shock to have low-grade fever, chills, and tachycardia (option b). These symptoms are common in the early stages of sepsis.
7. The presence of which protein in urine is suggestive of the diagnosis for multiple myeloma?
a. Fibronectin
b. Elastin
c. Bence-jones proteins
d. Collagen
Answer: c. Bence-jones proteins
Description:The presence of Bence-jones proteins (option c) in urine is suggestive of the diagnosis for multiple myeloma. These proteins are abnormal immunoglobulins produced by the malignant plasma cells characteristic of the disease.
8. A patients is taking cyclophosphamide for the treatment of lymphoma. The nurse is very cautions while administering the medication because this drug poses the fatal side effect of….?
a. Alopecia
b. Myeloma
c. CNS toxicity
d. Hemorrhagic cystitis
Answer: d. Hemorrhagic cystitis
Description:The nurse is very cautious while administering cyclophosphamide to the patient because this drug poses the fatal side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis (option d), which is inflammation and bleeding of the bladder lining.
9. Nurse is caring for a 65 year old patient with large draining wound on his hip. The wound is difficult to keep covered and draining onto his linens. Nurse is aware that this patient to be placed into:
a. Standard precautions
b. Contact precautions
c. Droplet precaution
d. Air bones isolation
Answer: b. Contact precautions
Description:Contact precautions should be consider when a patient has a wound draining. Contact precautions are also be considered for patient’s with uncontrollable diarrhea and other scenario when the environment may become contaminated.
10. Which of the following PPE is appropriate for the nurse who is going to perform tracheostomy suction in a patient with COVID 19?
a. Surgical mask, goggles, gown
b. N95 mask, face shield, gown, gloves
c. N95 mask gown, face shield
d. Surgical mask, face shield, grown gloves.
Answer: b. N95 mask, face shield, gown, gloves
Description:The appropriate PPE for the nurse performing tracheostomy suction in a patient with COVID-19 is an N95 mask, face shield, gown, and gloves (option b). This combination provides adequate protection against respiratory droplets and potential exposure to the virus.
11. Codman’s triangle is typically seen in which of the following tumors.
a. Rhabdomyosarcoma
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Neuroblastoma
d. Ewing’s sarcoma
Answer: a. Rhabdomyosarcoma
Description:Codman's triangle is typically seen in osteosarcoma (option b). It refers to a triangular area of new bone formation at the periphery of the tumor, commonly seen in X-rays.
12. Correct option regarding primary bone tumors is:
a. Commonly seen in the first three decade of life and benign tumors are more
b. Leads to osteoporosis
c. Easily metastasis to adjacent bone
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Primary bone tumors are commonly seen in the first three decades of life, benign tumors are more common than malignant ones, and they can metastasize to adjacent bone.
13. Malignant tumor of bone is:
a. Osteoma
b. Ewing’s sarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Osteogenic sarcoma
Answer: d. Osteogenic sarcoma
Description:The malignant tumor of bone is "Osteogenic sarcoma" (option d). It is a type of bone cancer that arises from primitive bone-forming cells and is also known as osteosarcoma.
14. “Onion-skin†appearance is present in:
a. Ewing’s sarcoma
b. Rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Primitive cell tumor
d. Wilms tumor
Answer: a. Ewing’s sarcoma
Description:The "onion-skin" appearance is present in Ewing's sarcoma (option a). It refers to the layered periosteal reaction seen in X-rays, which is a characteristic feature of this bone tumor.
15. Which of the following electrolyte imbalance is not seen in tumor lysis syndrome?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hyperphosphatemia
c. Hyperuricemia
d. Hypercalcemia
Answer: d. Hypercalcemia
Description:Tuor lysis syndrome (TLS) is a condition that occurs when a large number of cancer cells die within a short period releasing their contents in to the blood. Tumor lysis syndrome is characterized by hyperkalemia hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and other nitrogen-containing compound (azotemia).
16. Stokes sign is seen in:
a. Tumor lysis syndrome
b. Superior vena cava syndrome
c. SIADH
d. Spinal cord compression.
Answer: b. Superior vena cava syndrome
Description:Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) happens when the superior vena cava is partially blocked or compressed. Cancer is usually the main cause of SVCS. Edema of the neck, called the collar of stokes, light headedness, facial swelling, migraines, difficulty breathing cough, and upper limb edema are commonly seen in SVCS.
17. What is the life threating sign of superior vena cava syndrome?
a. Cyanosis
b. Erythema of the upper arm
c. Swelling of the veins
d. Epistaxis.
Answer: a. Cyanosis
Description:The life-threatening sign of superior vena cava syndrome is "a. Cyanosis." This condition occurs when there is a blockage or compression of the superior vena cava, leading to impaired blood flow and potential cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin) due to reduced oxygenation.
18. What is the early sign or symptom of superior vena cava syndrome?
a. Periorbital edema
b. Arm edema
c. Ecchymosis
d. Dysphagia
Answer: a. Periorbital edema
Description:The early sign or symptom of superior vena cava syndrome is "a. Periorbital edema." This refers to swelling around the eyes and is often one of the first indications of the condition.
19. Which of the following ECG changes is seen in hypercalcemia?
a. Shortening of QT interval
b. Shortening of ST segment
c. Both a and b
d. Prolongation of QT interval.
Answer: c. Both a and b
Description:In hypercalcemia, short QT interval is the most common findings, and this is contributed mainly by the shortening of ST segment.
20. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is a priority for a patient with superior vena cava syndrome?
a. Ineffective tissue perfusion
b. Sleep pattern disturbance
c. Ineffective breathing pattern
d. Impaired skin integrity.
Answer: c. Ineffective breathing pattern
Description:The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with superior vena cava syndrome is "c. Ineffective breathing pattern." This condition can cause compression of the airways and lead to breathing difficulties, making it a critical concern for the patient's immediate well-being.
21. All the following are oncological metabolic emergency; EXCEPT:
a. Febrile neutropenia
b. Tumor lysis syndrome
c. SIADH
d. Hypercalcemia of malignancy.
Answer: a. Febrile neutropenia
Description:All of the following are oncological metabolic emergencies except "a. Febrile neutropenia." Febrile neutropenia is a common complication of chemotherapy but is not a metabolic emergency. The other options (b. Tumor lysis syndrome, c. SIADH, and d. Hypercalcemia of malignancy) are all considered oncological metabolic emergencies.
22. Which of the following electrolyte imbalance is seen in SIADH?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypernatremia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypokalemia
Answer: a. Hyponatremia
Description:SIADH is characterized by impaired water excretion leading to hyponatremia with hypervolemia or euvolemia.
23. Which of the following electrolyte imbalance observed in SIADH?
a. Sodium level 120 meq/l
b. Potassium 3.6 meq/l
c. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dl
d. Calcium 9.0 mg/dl
Answer: a. Sodium level 120 meq/l
Description:The electrolyte imbalance observed in SIADH is "a. Sodium level 120 meq/l." SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone) is characterized by excessive retention of water, leading to dilutional hyponatremia and low sodium levels in the blood.
24. Which of the following drug is used to decrease the uric acid level for the client diagnosed with tumor lysis syndrome?
a. Allopurinol
b. Tamoxifen
c. Cisplatin
d. Doxorubicin
Answer: a. Allopurinol
Description:Allopurinol, a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, reduces the conversion of nucleic acid byproducts to uric acid, in the way preventing urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure.
25. Philadelphia chromosome associated with which type of cancer:
a. Leukemia
b. Nerve
c. Thyroid
d. Breast
Answer: a. Leukemia
Description:The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with "a. Leukemia." It is specifically linked to chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) and some cases of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
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