NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 140
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1. Which of the following is characteristic of Hodgkin’s disease?
a. Anorexia
b. Weight loss
c. Excessive vomiting
d. Painless, movable adenopathy in cervical area
Answer: d. Painless, movable adenopathy in cervical area
Description:Hodgkin’s disease is associated with painless adenopathy. Other three options are common in every disease.
2. B symptoms of Hodgkin’s disease include:
a. Weight loss
b. Night sweats
c. Fever
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:B symptoms of Hodgkin’s disease encompass fever, night sweats, and weight loss, collectively represented by option d.
3. Most commonly initiation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma occur from
a. Axillary
b. Mediastinum
c. Abdomen
d. Burket’s
Answer: d. Burket’s
Description:Hodgkin’s lymphoma primarily originates from the lymph nodes, often beginning in the neck or chest, as indicated by option d, rather than the other mentioned locations.
4. Major difference between Hodgkin’s lymphoma and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is that:
a. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is treated only with radiation therapy.
b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma occurs only in young adults
c. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma can manifest in multiple organs.
d. Hodgkin’s lymphoma multicentric in origin
Answer: c. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma can manifest in multiple organs.
Description:The notable distinction between Hodgkin’s lymphoma and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma lies in the fact that the latter can involve various organs, denoted by option c, unlike the former.
5. A client comes to the clinic complaining of fever, drenching night sweats, and unexplained wight loss and single enlarged supraclavicular lymph node, most probable diagnosis will be:
a. Thalassemia
b. Wilms’ tumor
c. Lymphadenopathy
d. Hodgkin’s disease
Answer: d. Hodgkin’s disease
Description:Given the client's symptoms of fever, night sweats, weight loss, and a solitary enlarged lymph node in the supraclavicular region, the most likely diagnosis is Hodgkin's disease, indicated by option d.
6. Patient with AIDS are at higher risk of developing:
a. Colorectal cancer.
b. Meningioma
c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. Hepatocellular cancer
Answer: c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
Description:Individuals with AIDS are more prone to developing Kaposi's sarcoma, marked by option c, compared to the other mentioned conditions.
7. The presence of Bence jounce protein in the urine indicates which type of cancer?
a. Hodgkin’s disease
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Leukemia
d. Non-Hodgkin’s disease
Answer: b. Multiple myeloma
Description:The presence of Bence-Jones proteins in urine can be a sign of multiple myeloma or another rare condition called Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia. About 50% to 80% of people with multiple myeloma have Bence-Jones proteins in their urine.
8. Multiple myeloma is also called:
a. Basedow’s disease
b. Honey syrup disease
c. Kahler’s disease
d. Basedow’s disease
Answer: c. Kahler’s disease
Description:Multiple myeloma is referred to as Kahler's disease, as indicated by option c, rather than the other mentioned terms.
9. Which of the following electrolyte imbalance is seen in multiple myeloma?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hyperkalemia
Answer: b. Hypercalcemia
Description:Multiple myeloma is associated with excessive tumor-induced, osteoclast-mediated bone destruction. This leads to release of calcium from bone to blood stream. This results in hypercalcemia.
10. Which of the following intervention helps to reduce the calcium level?
a. Encourage the consumption of fluids.
b. Give fiber-rich foods
c. Radiation therapy.
d. Provide adequate range of motion exercise
Answer: a. Encourage the consumption of fluids.
Description:To lower calcium levels, it's advisable to encourage fluid intake, as stated in option a, rather than the other mentioned interventions.
11. Multiple myeloma commonly affects the age group of;
a. Between 15 to 40
b. Between 30 to 40
c. Younger than 15 years
d. Above 60 years
Answer: d. Above 60 years
Description:ltiple myeloma predominantly affects individuals above 60 years of age, corresponding to option d, rather than the specified age ranges.
12. The client with multiple myeloma is at the risk of:
a. Pathological fractures
b. Dysuria
c. Hematuria
d. Night sweats.
Answer: a. Pathological fractures
Description:Clients with multiple myeloma are at an increased risk of experiencing pathological fractures, as denoted by option a, due to the weakening of bones caused by the disease.
13. Which of the following lab findings is not seen in patient with multiple myeloma?
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Hyperuricemia
d. Thrombocytopenia
Answer: b. Hypocalcemia
Description:Hypocalcemia, represented by option b, is not typically observed in patients with multiple myeloma; the other listed lab findings can commonly be associated with the condition.
14. Which of the following drug therapy is necessary to slow down the bone damage and reduce the pain in patients with multiple myeloma?
a. Bisphosphonate
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. ACE inhibitors.
d. Analgesics
Answer: a. Bisphosphonate
Description:Bisphosphonates are specific inhibitors of osteoclastic activity and are used in the treatment of patient with multiple myeloma (MM). It is also found to be effective in reducing pain and vertebral pain.
15. Which of the following statement is correct regarding multiple myeloma?
a. It is due to the excessive numbers of abnormal plasma cells invade the bone marrow.
b. It is due to the increased destruction of blood cells.
c. It is due to the overproduction of leukocytes
d. It is due to the demyelination of myelin sheaths
Answer: a. It is due to the excessive numbers of abnormal plasma cells invade the bone marrow.
Description:The correct statement about multiple myeloma is that it results from an excess of abnormal plasma cells infiltrating the bone marrow, as mentioned in option a, rather than the other provided explanations.
16. Which of the following tab tests helps to find out the abnormal number of immature plasma cells?
a. Complete blood test
b. Bone marrow aspiration
c. Urine analysis
d. CSF analysis
Answer: b. Bone marrow aspiration
Description:To detect an abnormal number of immature plasma cells, a bone marrow aspiration, indicated by option b, is the appropriate diagnostic test, as opposed to the other options listed.
17. The bone marrow engraftment process takes up to:
a. 1 to 2 weeks
b. 1 to 4 weeks
c. 2 to 5 weeks
d. 6 to 10 weeks
Answer: b. 1 to 4 weeks
Description:The bone marrow engraftment process typically lasts for about 2 to 5 weeks, corresponding to option c, for the new cells to establish themselves and begin functioning effectively.
18. Which site is best for bone marrow transplantation for adults?
a. Iliac crest
b. Femur
c. Sternum
d. Tibia
Answer: a. Iliac crest
Description:For adults, the iliac crest, as mentioned in option a, is commonly considered the optimal site for bone marrow transplantation due to its accessibility and suitability for the procedure.
19. The stem cell which is taken from an identical twin is called:
a. None of the above.
b. Allogenic
c. Syngeneic
d. Autologous
Answer: c. Syngeneic
Description:Stem cells obtained from an identical twin are referred to as syngeneic, as indicated by option c, in contrast to the other mentioned terms.
20. The stem cells used in the Peripheral blood stem cell transplantation (PBSCT) should come from the process of:
a. Dialysis
b. Apheresis
c. Leukapheresis
d. Both b and c
Answer: c. Leukapheresis
Description:The stem cells used in PBSCT come form the bloodstream. PBCS for transplantation is obtained through a process called apheresis or leukapheresis. For 4 or 5 days before apheresis, the donor may be given a medication to increase the number of stem cells released into the bloodstream.
21. PBSCT stands for:
a. Peripheral blood stem cell transplantation
b. Peripheral body stem cell transplantation
c. Pulmonary breast stem cell transplantation
d. Pulmonary blood stem cell transplantation
Answer: a. Peripheral blood stem cell transplantation
Description:PBSCT stands for Peripheral Blood Stem Cell Transplantation, denoted by option a, which involves collecting and transplanting stem cells from the bloodstream.
22. Which type of donors stem cell is most common?
a. Allogenic
b. Autologous
c. Syngeneic
d. None of these
Answer: b. Autologous
Description:The most common type of donor stem cells used is autologous, as mentioned in option b, where the patient's own cells are collected and then transplanted back into their body.
23. Which type of donor marrow should be transplanted immediately?
a. Allogenic
b. Autologous
d. Xenologers
d. Syngeneic
Answer: a. Allogenic
Description:Allogenic donor marrow should be transplanted promptly, as indicated by option a, which involves using marrow from a genetically matched donor other than the recipient.
24. Which type of donor marrow is frozen for the later use?
a. Xenologers
b. Allogenic
c. Autologous
d. Syngeneic
Answer: c. Autologous
Description:Autologous donor marrow is frozen for later use, as noted in option c, where the patient's own marrow is collected and stored for potential transplantation back into their body.
25. Most common Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is:
a. B cell lymphoma
b. Burket’s
c. T cell lymphoma
d. Ductal
Answer: a. B cell lymphoma
Description:The most common type of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is B cell lymphoma, as stated in option a, which originates from abnormal B cells in the lymphatic system.
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