NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 142
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1. In vasectomy, which of the following structure is cut:
a. Epididymis
b. Pampiniform plexus
c. Vas deferens
d. Ejaculatory duct.
Answer: c. Vas deferens
Description:Cutting of vas deference is done in the surgery after cutting tips are ligated or tucking into the adjacent tissue to prevent re anastomosis.
2. The nurse should explain to the patient who underwent vasectomy that:
a. Immediately after the surgery you are sterile.
b. No need to use any other contraceptive methods.
c. Normal erection and ejaculation functions will be there.
d. An alternative form of contraception will be necessary for 6 to 8 weeks.
Answer: d. An alternative form of contraception will be necessary for 6 to 8 weeks.
Description:Even though the vasectomy makes you sterile over time, it's important to know that for about 6 to 8 weeks after the surgery, you will still need to use another form of contraception to prevent pregnancy. During this period, your body needs time to clear any remaining sperm from your reproductive system. After this waiting period, the risk of pregnancy decreases significantly, and you won't need to worry about using other contraceptive methods. It's crucial to follow this guidance to ensure the effectiveness of the procedure.
3. Undescended tests are know as:
a. Cushingoid appearance
b. Hypoaldosteronism
c. Cryptorchidism
d. Phimosis
Answer: c. Cryptorchidism
Description:When a testicle does not descend into the scrotum as it should, it is referred to as cryptorchidism. This condition requires medical attention as the testicle should be in the scrotum for proper development and function.
4. Which of the following is true about cryptorchidism:
a. It is also known as undescended tests.
b. In most of the case tests lie at inguinal ring
c. Orchidopexy is the surgical management
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:All of the statements are true about cryptorchidism. It is indeed also known as undescended testes. In most cases, the testes are found near the inguinal ring. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is commonly used for the management of cryptorchidism.
5. Testicular atrophy is caused by:
a. Atherosclerotic narrowing of testicular blood vessels
b. Testicular inflammation.
c. Poor nutrition
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Testicular atrophy is caused by a combination of factors including atherosclerotic narrowing of testicular blood vessels, testicular inflammation, and poor nutrition, as indicated by option d.
6. Most common location of undescended tests is:
a. Retro-peritoneum
b. Inguinal ring
c. Upper scrotum
d. Inguinal canal
Answer: d. Inguinal canal
Description: When testicles do not descend properly, they are commonly found in the inguinal canal, which is a passage in the lower abdomen near the groin.
7. Twisting of spermatic cord which leads to cutting off blood supply to testicle is know as:
a. Varicosities
b. Testicular torsion
c. Orchitis
d. Cryptorchidism
Answer: b. Testicular torsion
Description:Testicular torsion is a medical condition where the spermatic cord gets twisted, which can result in reduced blood flow to the testicle. This is a serious situation that requires immediate medical attention to prevent damage to the testicle.
8. Best indication of testicular biopsy is:
a. Oligospermia 1
b. Azoospermia
c. Dyspareunia
d. BPH
Answer: b. Azoospermia
Description:Azoospermia refers to the absence of sperm in the semen. If a man is unable to produce sperm in his ejaculate, a testicular biopsy might be performed to investigate the underlying cause of this condition.
9. Retraction of foreskin is difficult or impossible is known as:
a. Cushingoid appearance
b. Hypoaldosteronism
c. Cryptorchidism
d. Phimosis
Answer: d. Phimosis
Description: Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin is too tight, making it difficult or impossible to retract over the head of the penis. This can cause discomfort and potential issues with hygiene.
10. The urethra which opens on the dorsal surface of the penis is termed:
a. Epispadias
b. Hypospadias
c. Cryptorchidism
d. Anorchidism
Answer: a. Epispadias
Description:Epispadias is a congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located on the dorsal (upper) surface of the penis instead of the typical location at the tip.
11. Foreskin cannot be returned to its normal position, once retracted is known as:
a. Balanitis
b. Paraphimosis
c. Posthitis
d. Dilatation.
Answer: b. Paraphimosis
Description:Paraphimosis is a medical condition where the retracted foreskin becomes stuck behind the head of the penis and cannot be pulled back over it. This can cause pain and potential complications if not treated promptly.
12. Surgery of phimosis is:
a. Orchidopexy
b. Circumcision
c. Shunting surgery
d. Dilatation.
Answer: b. Circumcision
Description:Circumcision is a surgical procedure in which the foreskin is removed from the head of the penis. This is often done to treat phimosis, a condition where the foreskin is too tight and causes discomfort or other issues.
13. Inflammation of glans penis is:
a. Balanitis
b. Paraphimosis
c. Posthitis
d. Cryptorchidism
Answer: a. Balanitis
Description:Balanitis is a condition characterized by the inflammation of the glans penis. It can be caused by various factors including poor hygiene, infections, or skin conditions.
14. Inflammation of foreskin of penis is:
a. Balanitis
b. Paraphimosis
d. Cryptorchidism
d. Cryptorchidism
Answer: d. Cryptorchidism
Description:Posthitis is a condition characterized by the inflammation of the foreskin of the penis. It can be caused by factors like poor hygiene, infections, or skin conditions affecting the area.
15. Persistent and prolonged penile erection without sexual desire is known as:
a. Phimosis
b. Paraphimosis
c. Cryptorchidism
d. Priapism
Answer: d. Priapism
Description: Priapism is a medical condition where the penis remains erect for a prolonged period, usually without any sexual desire or stimulation. It's important to seek medical attention promptly if this occurs, as prolonged erections can lead to complications.
16. Management for scrotal edema following penile implant is:
a. Cold application
b. Trendelenburg position
c. Maintain Strict I/O chart and report to physician
d. Elevate the scrotum using a soft support
Answer: d. Elevate the scrotum using a soft support
Description:Scrotal elevation using soft support will help us to reduce the edema. T-bandage is commonly used.
17. Genetic condition characterized by azoospermia male is:
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Edeward syndrome
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome
d. Neurofibromatosis
Answer: c. Klinefelter’s syndrome
Description:Klinefelter's syndrome is a genetic disorder where males have an extra X chromosome (XXY) instead of the usual XY configuration. This can lead to various reproductive issues, including azoospermia, which affects the production of sperm.
18. Gonadotropin deficiency leads to testicular failure is known as:
a. Exstrophy bladder
b. Kallmann syndrome
c. Male pseudohermaphrodites
d. Bloom syndrome
Answer: b. Kallmann syndrome
Description:Kallmann syndrome is a genetic disorder where there's a lack of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) production, leading to insufficient gonadotropin secretion and subsequently testicular failure. This can result in delayed puberty and reproductive issues.
19. Male intersex is:
a. Male gonads with female external genitalia
b. Female gonads with male external genitalia
c. Sex between two males
d. Sex between one male and one female
Answer: a. Male gonads with female external genitalia
Description:Male intersex is a condition where an individual has male reproductive organs (gonads) but external genitalia that appear more female in nature. This is due to variations in sex development during fetal development.
20. Gynecomastia is present in:
a. Altered ratio of estrogen to androgens
b. Klinefelter’s syndrome
c. Increase in estrogen production
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Gynecomastia can be caused by an altered ratio of estrogen to androgens (male hormones), conditions like Klinefelter's syndrome with additional X chromosome leading to hormonal imbalances, and an increase in estrogen production.
21. A perioperative nurse is leading a patient for the treatment of spleen that rupture. The nurse should anticipate that this type of surgery belongs in what category?
a. Minor, diagnostic
b. Minor, selective
c. Major, emergency
d. Major, palliative
Answer: c. Major, emergency
Description:Surgery for a ruptured spleen is considered a major and emergency procedure due to the critical nature of the condition and the need for immediate intervention to stop internal bleeding and address potential complications.
22. A 64-year old female who is planned for a hip replacement is taking several medications on a routine basis. Which of the following classes of drug might create surgical risk for this patient?
a. Anticoagulants
b. Antacids
c. Diuretics
d. Sedatives
Answer: a. Anticoagulants
Description:Anticoagulant medications are used to prevent blood clotting, but they can increase the risk of bleeding during surgery. Hip replacement surgery involves incisions and tissue manipulation, making the risk of bleeding higher. Patients on anticoagulants need careful management and potentially temporary cessation of the medication before surgery to minimize bleeding complications.
23. A nurse is preparing for an obsess patient who has had operative procedure. The nurse assess the patient for what post-operative complication?
a. Anesthetic agent interactions
b. Impaired wound healing
c. Hemorrhage
d. Gas pains
Answer: b. Impaired wound healing
Description:Obese patients are at a higher risk for impaired wound healing due to factors such as reduced blood circulation, increased tension on incisions, and potential complications like infection. Monitoring wound healing and providing appropriate care are essential to prevent complications.
24. A client had an operative procedure over the thoracic incision. The nurse expects that he will have a higher risk for post-operative complication involving which body system?
a. Respiratory system
b. Circulatory system
c. Gastrointestinal system
d. Central nervous system
Answer: a. Respiratory system
Description:Surgical procedures in the thoracic area can affect the respiratory system due to factors such as changes in lung capacity, risk of pneumonia, and difficulty in breathing. Monitoring and managing respiratory function are crucial to prevent complications in this scenario.
25. When a patient in the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU), a nurse finds extra wound drainage, dizziness, a decreased BP, and a higher pulse rate. The nurse interprets these findings as most likely indicating:
a. Increased ICP
b. Lung atelectasis
c. Infection
d. Hemorrhage.
Answer: d. Hemorrhage.
Description:The combination of increased wound drainage, dizziness, decreased blood pressure, and elevated pulse rate suggests the possibility of hemorrhage (excessive bleeding). This is a concerning sign that requires immediate attention to address and manage the bleeding.
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