NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 143
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1. The most common, preventable compliable of abdominal surgery is:
a. Thrombophlebitis
b. Fluids and electrolyte imbalance.
c. Urinary retention
d. Atelectasis
Answer: d. Atelectasis
Description:The most common preventable complication of abdominal surgery is "d. Atelectasis." Atelectasis is a condition where a part of the lung collapses or doesn't fully expand, usually due to shallow breathing or not taking deep breaths after surgery. This can lead to problems with oxygen exchange in the lungs and cause breathing difficulties. It's important for patients to practice deep breathing exercises and get up and move around as soon as possible after surgery to help prevent this complication.
2. The surgery to remove the gallbladder entirely is referred to as:
a. Cholelithiasis
b. Cholecystectomy
c. Colectomy
d. Gallectomy
Answer: b. Cholecystectomy
Description:The surgery to remove the gallbladder entirely is referred to as "b. Cholecystectomy." This procedure is done when the gallbladder has problems like gallstones or inflammation. The gallbladder is removed to relieve symptoms and prevent further issues. It's important to consult a doctor if you experience gallbladder problems to determine if a cholecystectomy is necessary.
3. The surgery performed to move entire breast along with surrounding muscles and lymph nodes:
a. Radical mastectomy
b. Simple mastectomy
c. Mastectomy with lymphadenectomy
d. Lumpectomy
Answer: a. Radical mastectomy
Description:The surgery performed to remove the entire breast along with surrounding muscles and lymph nodes is called "a. Radical mastectomy." This type of surgery is usually done when treating certain types of breast cancer that have spread to nearby tissues. It's a more extensive procedure than a simple mastectomy or other options, and it aims to remove as much of the cancerous tissue as possible. It's important to discuss your specific situation with your doctor to determine the most appropriate treatment approach.
4. A surgery to remove the lung cancer and small portion of healthy tissue is know as:
a. Lobectomy
b. Wedge resection
c. Segmental resection
d. Pneumectomy
Answer: a. Lobectomy
Description:A surgery to remove lung cancer along with a small portion of healthy tissue is known as "a. Lobectomy." In this procedure, a whole lobe of the lung is removed to treat lung cancer and prevent its spread. It's a common surgical option when the cancer is confined to a specific lobe of the lung. Other options like wedge resection and segmental resection involve removing smaller portions of tissue and may be used depending on the extent of the cancer and the patient's condition. Always consult with a medical professional to determine the best treatment approach for your specific situation.
5. The Whipple procedure is referred as:
a. Pancreatojejunostomy
b. Illeopancreatomy
c. Gastrojejunostomy
d. Pancreaticoduodenectomy
Answer: d. Pancreaticoduodenectomy
Description:The Whipple procedure is referred to as "d. Pancreaticoduodenectomy." This surgical procedure is a complex operation used to treat certain conditions affecting the pancreas, bile duct, and small intestine. It involves the removal of the head of the pancreas, part of the small intestine, the gallbladder, and sometimes the bile duct. Afterward, the remaining organs are reconnected to allow for digestion and bile flow. The Whipple procedure is often performed to treat pancreatic cancer or other serious conditions, and it requires careful consideration by medical professionals.
6. One of the noted surgeries for Hirschsprung disease:
a. Nissen fundoplication
b. Pyloromyotomy
c. Duhamel procedure
d. Conization
Answer: c. Duhamel procedure
Description:In Duhamel procedure. The ganglionic colon is restricted to the rectum and the normal proximal colon and rectum are brought together in an end-to-side anastomosis.
7. The surgical step taken to treat the client with Gastroesophageal reflux disease:
a. Nissen fundoplication
b. Pyloromyotomy
c. Duhamel procedure
d. Conization
Answer: a. Nissen fundoplication
Description:The surgical step taken to treat a client with Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is "a. Nissen fundoplication." This procedure involves wrapping the top of the stomach around the lower esophagus to prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus, which causes the symptoms of GERD. It helps alleviate heartburn and acid reflux by reinforcing the natural barrier between the stomach and esophagus. This surgical option is commonly used when lifestyle changes and medications are not sufficient to manage GERD symptoms effectively. Always consult a medical professional to determine the best treatment approach for your specific condition.
8. The best surgical intervention to treat pyloric stenosis is:
a. Nissen fundoplication
b. Pyloromyotomy
c. Duhamel procedure
d. Conization
Answer: b. Pyloromyotomy
Description:The best surgical intervention to treat pyloric stenosis is "b. Pyloromyotomy." Pyloric stenosis is a condition where the muscle at the bottom of the stomach becomes thickened, blocking the passage of food into the small intestine. A pyloromyotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making a small incision in the thickened muscle to allow food to pass through more easily. This procedure effectively relieves the obstruction and allows for normal digestion. It's a commonly performed surgery for infants with pyloric stenosis and has a high success rate in resolving the condition. Always consult with a medical professional to determine the most appropriate treatment for your specific situation.
9. A short surgical procedure in which certain tissue portion which are affected by malignant cells in the cervix are removed. This procedure is known as:
a. Nissen fundoplication
b. Pyloromyotomy
c. Duhamel procedure
d. Conization
Answer: d. Conization
Description:A short surgical procedure in which certain tissue portions affected by malignant cells in the cervix are removed is known as "d. Conization." This procedure, also called a cone biopsy, involves removing a cone-shaped piece of tissue from the cervix for further examination and treatment. It's often done when abnormal cells are found during a Pap smear or colposcopy. Conization can help diagnose and treat early-stage cervical cancer or pre-cancerous conditions. It's a relatively simple and effective procedure to remove the affected tissue while preserving the rest of the cervix. Always consult a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment approach for your specific condition.
10. A new surgical technique to treat the patient with cancer cells on lower rectum:
a. Extra levator abdominal perineal excision
b. Transurethral resection
c. Anterior peritoneal resection
d. Pull through procedure
Answer: a. Extra levator abdominal perineal excision
Description:A new surgical technique to treat a patient with cancer cells on the lower rectum is "a. Extra levator abdominal perineal excision." This technique involves removing the cancerous tissue along with extra layers of surrounding tissue to ensure complete removal of the tumor. It's often used in cases where the cancer is located in the lower part of the rectum. The goal is to achieve thorough removal while minimizing the risk of cancer recurrence. Always consult with medical professionals to determine the most appropriate treatment option for your specific situation.
11. The surgical procedure to remove the ovaries present in the pelvic cavity is known as:
a. Hysterectomy
b. Salpingectomy
c. Oophorectomy
d. Vulvectomy
Answer: c. Oophorectomy
Description:The surgical procedure to remove the ovaries present in the pelvic cavity is known as "c. Oophorectomy." This procedure involves the removal of one or both ovaries and is commonly done to treat conditions such as ovarian cancer, ovarian cysts, or certain hormonal disorders. It's important for patients to discuss their specific situation with a doctor to determine if oophorectomy is the appropriate treatment option for their condition.
12. Pre-operative instructions to the client would include the following; EXCEPT:
a. Deep breathing and coughing exercise.
b. Continue anticoagulants
c. Lower limb exercise
d. Reassuring the client.
Answer: b. Continue anticoagulants
Description:The other options, a, c, and d, are commonly included in pre-operative instructions to help prepare the client for surgery. However, it's usually recommended to discontinue anticoagulants prior to surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. Always follow the specific instructions provided by the healthcare team.
13. The reasons why lipstick and nail polish is removed before surgery is;
a. Surgery becomes easier
b. Surgery becomes more successful
c. Psychological benefits to the patient
d. Cyanosis checked.
Answer: d. Cyanosis checked.
Description:Cyanosis refers to a bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes caused by a lack of oxygen in the blood. During surgery, medical professionals need to monitor the patient's oxygen levels and overall condition. Removing lipstick and nail polish helps them visually assess any changes in the skin color, particularly the lips and nail beds, which can provide important clues about the patient's oxygenation. This practice ensures the safety and well-being of the patient during the surgical procedure.
14. Which among the following pre-operative order is the most important order one day prior to the surgery?
a. Inform the family
b. Informed consent form
c. Physical examination
d. Respiratory exercise
Answer: b. Informed consent form
Description:Obtaining informed consent is crucial before any surgical procedure. It ensures that the patient fully understands the procedure, potential risks, benefits, and alternatives, and gives their voluntary agreement to undergo the surgery. This step protects the patient's rights and safety, and it's a legal and ethical requirement in medical practice. While other options are also important, obtaining informed consent is a fundamental and essential aspect of preparing a patient for surgery.
15. First nursing intervention while implementing pre-operative teaching to a client is:
a. Assess the client’s basic knowledge regarding the surgical procedure.
b. Provide pre-medication
c. Assist the doctor for performing PAC
d. Get informed consent from the client
Answer: a. Assess the client’s basic knowledge regarding the surgical procedure.
Description:Before providing pre-operative education, it's important for the nurse to gauge the client's existing understanding of the upcoming surgical procedure. This assessment helps tailor the teaching to the client's needs and fills any gaps in their knowledge. By understanding the client's baseline knowledge, the nurse can provide the most relevant and effective information to ease their concerns and ensure they are well-prepared for the surgery.
16. All among the following are the components of pre-operative check list; EXCEPT:
a. NPO status
b. Checking for allergy
c. Part preparation
d. Completion of history and physical examination
Answer: d. Completion of history and physical examination
Description:A pre-operative checklist typically includes components such as checking the patient's NPO (nothing by mouth) status to ensure they haven't eaten or drunk anything before surgery, checking for allergies to prevent any adverse reactions, and preparing the relevant body part for the surgery. However, the completion of history and physical examination is not typically a part of the pre-operative checklist, as these are usually done well before the day of surgery during the assessment and evaluation phases of the patient's care.
17. The last pre-operative assessment of a client going for elective splenectomy will be:
a. Name band
b. Signed consent
c. Empty bladder
d. Vital signs
Answer: d. Vital signs
Description:Before the client undergoes surgery, the healthcare team will conduct a final check of the client's vital signs, including measurements like heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and temperature. This assessment is crucial to ensure the client's stable condition before entering the operating room. While other options like the name band, signed consent, and empty bladder are also important pre-operative considerations, checking vital signs is the final assessment to confirm the client's readiness for the procedure.
18. The important nursing intervention prior to administration of pre-anesthetic medication is:
a. Ask patient to empty the bladder
b. Do deep breathing and coughing exercises
c. Shave the skin
d. Regulate IVF accurately
Answer: a. Ask patient to empty the bladder
Description:Before giving pre-anesthetic medication, it's important to ensure the patient's comfort and safety. Asking the patient to empty their bladder is a crucial step because it reduces the risk of discomfort during the procedure and helps prevent potential complications related to anesthesia, such as urinary retention. While other options like deep breathing exercises, skin shaving, and regulating IV fluids are also important, emptying the bladder is a specific measure that helps optimize the patient's condition before receiving anesthesia.
19. Nursing intervention to manage fear and anxiety associated with post-operative pain in pre-operative period is:
a. Teach diversion activity
b. Allow the patient to communicate with another patient who underwent for the same procedure
c. Explain the procedure associated with pain assessment and management.
d. Help the patient to ventilate the feeling.
Answer: c. Explain the procedure associated with pain assessment and management.
Description:The nursing intervention to manage fear and anxiety associated with post-operative pain in the pre-operative period is: c. Explain the procedure associated with pain assessment and management. One effective way to alleviate fear and anxiety about post-operative pain is to provide the patient with clear information about how pain will be assessed and managed after surgery. By explaining the procedures and strategies that will be in place to address their pain, patients can feel more informed and prepared. While options like teaching diversion activities, allowing patient communication, and facilitating emotional expression (venting) are also important, explaining pain assessment and management procedures directly addresses the specific concerns related to post-operative discomfort.
20. Which among the following history increases the risk during surgical procedure?
a. Drug abuse
b. Previous surgery
c. Daily taking thyroxin
d. All of the above.
Answer: a. Drug abuse
Description:Drug abuse can have negative effects on a patient's overall health and wellbeing, potentially leading to complications during and after surgery. Factors like impaired immune function, cardiovascular issues, and the potential for adverse reactions to anesthesia or medications can increase the risk associated with surgical procedures. While options b (previous surgery) and c (daily taking thyroxin) might have some impact on the patient's risk, drug abuse carries a higher potential for complications.
21. Atropine is a premedication given to the patient before surgery. Which among the following is the expected action of atropine?
a. Reduce secretions
b. Prevent bradycardia
c. Prevent hypotension
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Atropine is a premedication given to the patient before surgery. The expected action of atropine is: d. All of the above. Atropine has several effects that are beneficial before surgery. It can help reduce excessive secretions in the respiratory tract, prevent bradycardia (slow heart rate), and also assist in preventing hypotension (low blood pressure). These actions collectively contribute to creating a more stable and controlled environment for the patient undergoing surgery.
22. Who is responsible for coordinating all the activities with surgical teams and family while the surgery is going on?
a. Scrub nurse
b. Circulatory nurse
c. Anesthetist
d. Surgeon
Answer: b. Circulatory nurse
Description:The circulating nurse, also known as the perioperative nurse, plays a crucial role in coordinating various aspects of the surgical procedure. They ensure that everything is in place, manage communication between the surgical team and family, and oversee the overall flow of the surgery. The scrub nurse assists the surgeon with sterile instruments, the anesthetist administers anesthesia, and the surgeon performs the procedure. However, the circulating nurse's role is to coordinate and manage the entire surgical environment.
23. While scrubbing, nurse should:
a. Scrub from hands to elbow
b. Scrub with mechanical friction.
c. Hold the hands higher than the elbows
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:When nurses or healthcare professionals are preparing for a surgical procedure, they need to follow strict protocols for hand and arm hygiene. This involves scrubbing from the hands to the elbows to ensure all areas are cleaned thoroughly. Mechanical friction is used to thoroughly clean the hands and arms, and it's important to maintain the hands higher than the elbows to prevent water and contaminants from flowing back down. These practices help maintain a sterile environment and reduce the risk of infection during surgery.
24. Which of the following procedure always required surgical asepsis?
a. Colostomy irrigation
b. Vaginal irrigation
c. Urinary catheterization
d. Nasogastric tube insertion
Answer: c. Urinary catheterization
Description:Surgical asepsis, also known as sterile technique, is used to prevent contamination during procedures that involve entering sterile areas of the body or handling sterile equipment. Urinary catheterization, which involves inserting a catheter into the urinary tract, requires surgical asepsis to prevent introducing bacteria into the bladder or urinary system. While the other options (colostomy irrigation, vaginal irrigation, and nasogastric tube insertion) may require cleanliness and infection control, they do not necessarily involve entering sterile areas like the urinary tract, and therefore may not always require surgical asepsis.
25. To decrease the likelihood of bradyarrhythmia’s in children during endotracheal intubation, succinylcholine (Anectine) is used with which of the following agents?
a. Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
b. Isoproterenol (Isuprel)
c. Atropine sulfate
d. Lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine)
Answer: c. Atropine sulfate
Description:To decrease the likelihood of bradyarrhythmias in children during endotracheal intubation, succinylcholine (Anectine) is used with: c. Atropine sulfate. Succinylcholine is a muscle relaxant used to facilitate endotracheal intubation. However, it can lead to bradycardia (slow heart rate), especially in children. Atropine sulfate is an anticholinergic medication that can counteract bradycardia by blocking the effects of the vagus nerve, which slows down the heart rate. Administering atropine alongside succinylcholine helps prevent the bradycardia that can occur during the intubation process.
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