NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 144
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1. In the pre-anesthetic orders a patient is to receive 6 mg of morphine sulphate, the ampoule contains 15 mg/mL. The nurse should administer approximately how much amount?
a. 0.5 mL
b. 0.4 mL
c. 0.6 mL
d. 0.3 mL
Answer: b. 0.4 mL
Description:Amount to be administer (A)-(desired dose/dose in hand)* amount in which the drug comes A=(6 mg/15 mg) *1ml=0.4ml.
2. Intravenous induction for general anesthesia is more commonly practiced because:
a. Last for long time with fewer complications.
b. Easy to administer
c. Induction is rapid and pleasant
d. Cost effective
Answer: c. Induction is rapid and pleasant
Description:Intravenous induction for general anesthesia is commonly preferred because it allows for rapid and comfortable initiation of anesthesia. This method involves administering the anesthesia medication directly into the bloodstream, which leads to a quick onset of the anesthesia's effects. Patients typically find this approach more pleasant compared to other methods.
3. Dissociative anesthesia produced by:
a. Formaldehyde
b. Haloperidol
c. Ketamine
d. Imipramine
Answer: c. Ketamine
Description:Dissociative anesthesia is achieved through the use of ketamine. This type of anesthesia creates a state of detachment between a person's perception and their surroundings. Unlike other substances listed, such as haloperidol or imipramine, ketamine is known for its ability to induce this unique anesthesia experience.
4. In regional anesthesia, patient:
a. Is having long-term effects of anesthesia.
b. Is conscious.
c. Become unconscious rapidly
d. Is able to recognize pain
Answer: b. Is conscious.
Description:Regional anesthesia is the use of local anesthetics to block sensations of pain from a large area of the body, such as an arm or leg or the abdomen. Regional anesthesia allows a procedure to be done a region of the body without being unconscious.
5. Spinal anesthesia is given at:
a. L1-L2
b. L2-L3
c. L3-L4
d. L4-L5
Answer: c. L3-L4
Description:Spinal anesthesia is administered at the level L3-L4. This involves injecting anesthesia into the space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae. This specific location allows for effective numbing of the lower half of the body during procedures like surgery or childbirth.
6. Which of the following is most dangerous complication during induction of spinal anesthesia?
a. Bradypnea
b. Tachycardia
c. Hyperthermia
d. Hypotension
Answer: d. Hypotension
Description:Among the options listed, the most dangerous complication during the induction of spinal anesthesia is hypotension. This refers to a significant drop in blood pressure, which can lead to reduced blood flow to vital organs and potential complications.
7. Common complications associated with spinal anesthesia includes all; EXCEPT:
b. Hypothermia
c. Headache
a. Hypotension
d. Urinary incontinence
Answer: d. Urinary incontinence
Description:Common complications associated with spinal anesthesia include hypotension (low blood pressure), hypothermia (low body temperature), and headache. However, urinary incontinence is not typically considered a common complication of spinal anesthesia.
8. Which of the following would the nurse assess following assessment of vital signs in a patient who has undergone epidural anesthesia?
c. Dizziness
b. Bladder distension
d. Headache.
a. Ability to move legs sideways
Answer: b. Bladder distension
Description:After epidural anesthesia, perineal area is the last area to return to sensation. So the nurse should monitor the patient for distended bladder to determine if the sensation is returned.
9. Patient recovering form general anesthesia should be positioned in:
c. Trendelenburg position
a. Supine position
b. Fowler’s position
d. Side lying position
Answer: d. Side lying position
Description:A patient recovering from general anesthesia should be positioned in the side-lying position. This position helps to prevent choking, promote drainage of fluids, and maintain an open airway as the patient regains consciousness and their body functions return to normal.
10. Which of the following position is appropriate during a liver
a. Semi-Fowler’s
b. High Fowler’s
c. Supine with right arm raised and extended behind head
d. Left lateral position with right arm raised above head
Answer: c. Supine with right arm raised and extended behind head
Description:The patient should be supine, with his or her right side near the edge of the bed. The patient’s right arm should be above the head. The feet should be angled across the bed to expand the intercostal space as much as possible.
11. Which of the following position should be provided to the patient immediately after percutaneous liver biopsy?
a. Supine position
b. Semi-Fowler’s
c. Right lateral position
d. Left-lateral position
Answer: c. Right lateral position
Description:The most serious complication after liver biopsy is bleeding. In the right-lateral position, there will be direct pressure on the puncture site which will prevent hemorrhage.
12. Which of the following position is provided to the patient for the next 8 to 12 hours after the angiogram procedure?
a. Left lateral
b. Semi-Fowler’s with leg flexed
c. High Fowler’s with leg extended
d. Supine with leg extended.
Answer: d. Supine with leg extended.
Description:In supine position with leg extended, the circulation will not be affected because the leg is at the level of heart and is straight.
13. Which of the following patient would benefit if the head end of the bed is elevated?
a. Patient who underwent hemorrhoidectomy
b. Patient who underwent lumbar puncture
c. Patient with burns of the face and head
d. Patient who underwent lumbar puncture
Answer: c. Patient with burns of the face and head
Description:Elevating the head end of the bed would benefit a patient with burns of the face and head. This elevation helps reduce swelling and fluid accumulation in the area, which is especially important for patients with burns as it can help improve breathing and comfort. It also aids in preventing further complications and supports the healing process.
14. The position used for the anal surgery and excision in which the patient is on prone with head and feet at a lower level:
a. Frog leg position
b. Beach chair position
c. Jackknife position
d. Reverse Trendelenburg.
Answer: d. Reverse Trendelenburg.
Description:Jackknife position is also known as Kraske. A position in which the patient lies on the back, should elevated, legs flexed on thighs, thighs at right angles to the abdomen. It is often used for colorectal surgier. The position places extreme pressure on the knees. While position, the operation theatre nurse should place extra padding for the knee area.
15. The position given for the orthopedic shoulder arthroscopy would be:
a. Frog leg position
b. Beach chair position
c. Jackknife position
d. Reverse Trendelenburg.
Answer: b. Beach chair position
Description:The beach chair (barbershop) position was developed in the 1980s for orthopedic shoulder arthroscopy procedures. Patient sit up at angles varying form 30-90° above the horizontal plane with appropriate padding and with the head secured in a headrest.
16. The surgical position often used in the head and neck surgery for the reduction of venous congestion is:
a. Frog leg position
b. Beach chair position
c. Jackknife position
d. Reverse Trendelenburg.
Answer: d. Reverse Trendelenburg.
Description:The reverse Trendelenburg position is frequently used in head and neck surgery to reduce venous congestion. In this position, the patient's head is elevated higher than their heart while the rest of the body is kept flat. This helps improve blood flow from the head and neck area, reducing swelling and congestion during the surgery.
17. The position usually used to perform Foley’s catheterization in OT room:
a. Frog leg position
b. Beach chair position
c. Jackknife position
d. Reverse Trendelenburg.
Answer: a. Frog leg position
Description:The frog leg position is commonly used in the operating room for Foley's catheterization. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their knees bent and legs spread apart, resembling the position of a frog's legs. This position allows easy access to the genital area, making it convenient for inserting a urinary catheter.
18. The suggested position of facilitated surgical access to the cranium neck, or shoulder and to have drainage from the surgical site.
ac. Modified Fowler position
b. Knee chest position
c. Beach chair sitting.
d. Hamelton position
Answer: b. Knee chest position
Description:The knee chest position is recommended for facilitated surgical access to the cranial neck, shoulder, and for drainage from the surgical site. In this position, the patient kneels with their chest resting on the bed and their hips elevated, creating a downward slope. This unique angle allows the surgeon better access to the surgical area and promotes effective drainage during the procedure.
19. The suggested position to facilitate surgical access to the cranium neck, or shoulder and to have drainage from the surgical site.
a. Wilson spinal position
b. Horizontal knee chest position
c. Modified Fowler position
d. Beach chair sitting
Answer: c. Modified Fowler position
Description:The modified Fowler position is recommended to make surgical access to the cranium, neck, or shoulder easier, and to enable effective drainage from the surgical site. In this position, the patient is semi-sitting with their head and upper body elevated at an angle. This helps improve visibility and access to the surgical area while also allowing fluids to drain away from the site, promoting a successful surgery and recovery.
20. Which of the following is the modified prone and knee chest position for spinal surgeries?
a. Wilson spinal position
b. Horizontal knee chest position
c. Modified Fowler position
d. Beach chair sitting
Answer: a. Wilson spinal position
Description:The Wilson supporting frame providing convenient and stable method of maintain patients in a flexed position for spinal surgery.
21. The term neuropraxias is involved in the assessment after the surgical position. Neuropraxia refers to:
a. Nerve bulging
b. Peripheral nerve injury
c. Nerve weakness
d. Nervous dysfunction
Answer: b. Peripheral nerve injury
Description:Neuropraxia is a term used in the assessment after a surgical position. It refers to a type of peripheral nerve injury. Neuropraxia involves a temporary disruption of nerve function, often caused by pressure or stretching of the nerve, but without any structural damage. This means that the nerve's ability to conduct signals might be affected temporarily, leading to sensations like numbness, tingling, or weakness, but with the potential for full recovery over time.
22. The excessive arm abduction and the external rotation during the surgical procedure and the compression will affect the:
a. Brachial nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Peroneal nerve
d. Nerve weakness
Answer: a. Brachial nerve
Description:Excessive arm abduction and external rotation during a surgical procedure, along with compression, can impact the brachial nerve. This nerve controls movement and sensation in the arm, and these positions can put pressure on it, potentially leading to discomfort or nerve-related issues during and after the procedure.
23. During lithotomy position the nerve compression over the fibula will affect:
a. Brachial nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Peroneal nerve
d. Nerve weakness
Answer: c. Peroneal nerve
Description:In the lithotomy position, nerve compression over the fibula can affect the peroneal nerve. The peroneal nerve runs down the leg and controls movement and sensation in the lower leg and foot. Compression of this nerve during lithotomy positioning can lead to temporary or even prolonged discomfort and potential nerve-related complications.
24. Alternative for skin closure rather than suture is:
a. Dressing
b. Staple
c. Acticoat.
d. Glue
Answer: b. Staple
Description:An alternative for skin closure instead of using sutures is to use staples. Staples are metal clips that are used to hold the edges of a wound or incision together. They provide a strong and quick method of closing the skin, especially in situations where sutures might be less practical or time-consuming.
25. The disadvantage of using braided suture (multifilament) material are:
a. Highly unstable and high failure rate.
b. High risk of infection and highly unstable
c. High risk of infection and reactivity.
d. High risk of infection and high failure rate.
Answer: c. High risk of infection and reactivity.
Description:raided sutures, which are made from multiple strands, have a disadvantage of a high risk of infection and reactivity. The braided structure can trap bacteria and increase the chances of infection. Additionally, some individuals might experience an allergic or inflammatory response to the material, leading to complications.
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