NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 152
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1. The first priority in the management of trauma patient is:
a. Maintenance of an adequate airway
b. Control of hemorrhage
c. Maintenance of adequate arterial blood pressure
d. Ruling out a spinal injury
Answer: a. Maintenance of an adequate airway
Description:The airway is the most important priority in the management of the severely injured patients. It is essential to open and clear the airways to allow free access of air to the distal endotracheal tree. Once the airway is maintained, it is important to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation through the airways.
2. During intubation administration of succinylcholine can cause bradycardia. Which of the following agents used to overcome this effect?
a. Adrenaline
b. Lidocaine
c. Calcium gluconate
d. Atropine
Answer: d. Atropine
Description:Use of succinylcholine can result in Bradycardia, especially in children. Atropine is the drug of choice in treating succinylcholine-induced bradycardia. Lidocaine is used in adults only.
3. Which of the following is NOT an essential finding for brain death:
a. Loss of pupillary reflex
b. Loss of brain stem function
c. Negative apnea test
d. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
Answer: d. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
Description:The finding that is NOT essential for brain death is "d. Loss of deep tendon reflexes." While many neurological signs are assessed when determining brain death, loss of deep tendon reflexes is not one of the core criteria. The essential findings for brain death typically include loss of pupillary reflex, loss of brain stem function, and a negative apnea test.
4. Compression of bleeding carotid artery immediately leads to:
a. Vomiting
b. Stroke
c. Blindness
d. Loss of sense of smell
Answer: b. Stroke
Description:The compression of bleeding carotid artery leads to failure of brain perfusion due to thromboembolic events leading to devastating stroke. Vomiting, Blindness and loss of sense of smell is not present in the patient with carotid artery injury.
5. Nurse giving oxygen therapy should know that it has to be humidified because:
a. Oxygen is a hot air and it may burn trachea
b. Oxygen is a dry gas and thickness the mucus
c. Oxygen gets cleaned of pathogens by humidification
d. Oxygen is easily absorbed because humidification adds H-ion to it.
Answer: b. Oxygen is a dry gas and thickness the mucus
Description:The nurse giving oxygen therapy should know that it has to be humidified because "b. Oxygen is a dry gas and thickens the mucus." Oxygen, when delivered in its pure form, can be dry and may lead to drying out the airways and thickening of mucus, making it harder to clear. Adding humidity to the oxygen helps prevent irritation and keeps the respiratory passages more comfortable and functional.
6. What is the full explanation of ATLS?
a. Advanced trauma life support
b. Advanced tertiary life support
c. Advanced trauma life salvage
d. Advanced tertiary long-term safety
Answer: a. Advanced trauma life support
Description:ATLS stands for Advanced Trauma Life Support. It's a specialized medical training program designed to teach healthcare providers how to effectively manage and treat patients who have experienced severe traumatic injuries. The program provides a systematic approach to assessing, prioritizing, and treating trauma patients to improve their chances of survival and reduce complications.
7. X, a 32 year-old male has been admitted to the intensive care unit following a motor vehicle accident. Assessment found a positive Cullen’s sign. What does this indicate?
a. Pelvic fracture
b. Skull fracture
c. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage
d. Hemothorax
Answer: c. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage
Description:A positive Cullen's sign in a medical assessment indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage. In simple terms, it means that there is bleeding occurring in the area behind the peritoneum, which is the lining of the abdominal cavity. This sign can be an important indicator of internal bleeding and trauma, often seen in cases like severe injuries from accidents.
8. The Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust), for acute airway obstruction, attempts to:
a. Force air out of the lungs
b. Induce emptying of the stomach
c. Put pressure on the apex of the heart
d. All of the above
Answer: a. Force air out of the lungs
Description:The Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust) is an emergency technique for preventing suffocation when a person’s airway (windpipe) becomes blocked by a piece of food or other object. The pressure from the thrusts lifts the diaphragm and forces enough air from the lungs that expels the aspirated material
9. Most common injury in blunt abdominal trauma:
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Bladder
d. Spleen
Answer: d. Spleen
Description:• Spleen is the most commonly injured organ in abdominal trauma • The small intestine takes up a large part of the abdomen and it likely to be damaged in penetrating injury.
10. Saleem, 25-year-old male has been admitted to the intensive care unit following a motor vehicle accident. Bowel sounds are audible while auscultating Saleem’s lungs. This indicates:
a. Ruptured liver
b. Ruptured lungs
c. Diaphragmatic injury
d. Ruptured aorta
Answer: c. Diaphragmatic injury
Description:When auscultating (listening with a stethoscope) the lungs and hearing bowel sounds, it indicates a diaphragmatic injury. The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities. If it's injured, abdominal contents like the intestines can move upward into the chest, causing bowel sounds to be heard in the chest area. This is often seen in cases of trauma, like motor vehicle accidents, where the force can cause such injuries.
11. When an elderly patient complains of pain, the attending nurse should be careful because:
a. Elderly patients are expected to experience chronic pain
b. Elderly patients experiment reduced sensory perception
c. Elderly patients have indifferent pain threshold
d. Elderly patient have altered mental function
Answer: b. Elderly patients experiment reduced sensory perception
Description:When an elderly patient complains of pain, the attending nurse should be careful because elderly patients often experience reduced sensory perception. This means that their ability to feel and perceive pain might be diminished compared to younger individuals. This reduction in sensory perception can make it challenging for them to accurately express the intensity and location of their pain. As a result, healthcare providers need to exercise caution and use appropriate assessment techniques to ensure that the patient's pain is properly understood and managed.
12. What is the effect of atherosclerosis on arterial waveforms?
a. Increase in systolic waveform
b. Decrease in the size of diastolic wave
c. Decrease in the size of dicrotic notch
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Atherosclerosis, a condition where arteries become narrowed and hardened due to the buildup of plaque, can affect arterial waveforms in multiple ways. These waveforms are the patterns of blood pressure changes in arteries with each heartbeat. Atherosclerosis can lead to: a. Increase in systolic waveform: Atherosclerosis can cause narrowing of arteries, which can lead to increased resistance to blood flow. This can result in higher systolic blood pressure, leading to an increase in the amplitude of the systolic waveform. b. Decrease in the size of diastolic wave: The diastolic wave represents the pressure in the arteries during the resting phase of the heartbeat. Atherosclerosis can reduce the elasticity of arteries, causing them to become stiff and less capable of accommodating blood during diastole. This can lead to a decrease in the size of the diastolic wave. c. Decrease in the size of dicrotic notch: The dicrotic notch is a small dip or notch in the arterial waveform that occurs immediately after the aortic valve closes. Atherosclerosis can affect the dynamics of the aortic valve and alter the way the arterial pressure wave is reflected. This alteration can lead to changes in the appearance of the dicrotic notch, potentially making it less pronounced. In summary, atherosclerosis can impact various aspects of arterial waveforms due to its effects on artery structure and function, resulting in changes in systolic waveform, the size of the diastolic wave, and the dicrotic notch.
13. What is the area under arterial pressure waveform denoted?
a. Systolic pressure
b. Coronary artery pressure
c. End diastolic pressure
d. Mean arterial pressure
Answer: d. Mean arterial pressure
Description:The area under the arterial pressure waveform represents the Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP). The arterial pressure waveform is a graph that shows the changes in blood pressure in an artery during each heartbeat. The mean arterial pressure is an important measure because it gives us an average of the pressure in the arteries throughout the cardiac cycle, taking into account both systolic (peak) and diastolic (resting) pressures. It's a valuable indicator of the overall perfusion (blood flow) to the body's tissues and organs.
14. ROSE questionnaires is used for?
a. Alcohol addiction
b. Sex addiction
c. Angia assessment
d. Deep vein thrombosis assessment
Answer: c. Angia assessment
Description:ROSE questionnaires is used to evaluate the subjective severity of ischemic heart pain and intermittent claudication in patients with Coronary Artery Disease.
15. A patient received Atropine sulphate as a premedication 30 minutes ago and is now complaining of dry mouth. On assessment the nurse found the pulse rate is higher, than before atropine was administered. The nurse understands that this is:
a. An allergic reaction to atropine
b. Due to higher dose to atropine
c. Due to anxiety of patient about upcoming surgery
d. Normal side effect of atropine
Answer: d. Normal side effect of atropine
Description:Atropine is an anticholinergic drug with expected side effects of dryness mouth and tachycardia. So complains of dry mouth and increased pulse rate is considered to be normal and excepted after a dose of atropine sulphate.
16. Client receiving TPN via CVP complains of chest pain and dyspnea, tachycardia and hypertension. Which among the following complications nurse need to suspect in this client?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Electrolyte imbalances
c. Sepsis
d. Air embolism
Answer: d. Air embolism
Description:If a client receiving Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) via a Central Venous Catheter (CVP) complains of chest pain, dyspnea (shortness of breath), tachycardia (rapid heart rate), and hypertension (high blood pressure), the nurse should suspect an air embolism. An air embolism occurs when air bubbles enter the bloodstream and travel through the blood vessels. When these air bubbles block blood flow, they can cause serious symptoms such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, rapid heart rate, and high blood pressure. In the context of TPN being administered through a CVP, there is a risk of air entering the catheter and getting into the bloodstream. This can happen if the connection is not properly sealed or if there are issues with the administration process. Recognizing the symptoms and acting quickly is important, as an air embolism can lead to severe complications. The nurse should take immediate steps to stop the TPN infusion, position the client appropriately, and notify the healthcare provider for further intervention.
17. Important nursing intervention for a client who has been sexually assaulted is:
a. Treat urgent medical problems
b. Inform the NGO
c. Psychological support to the client
d. Recording and reporting
Answer: a. Treat urgent medical problems
Description:For a client who has been sexually assaulted, the important nursing intervention is to prioritize treating urgent medical problems. This means addressing any immediate physical health concerns that may have resulted from the assault. Sexual assault can lead to injuries, potential exposure to infections, and other medical issues that require prompt attention. Before any other steps are taken, ensuring the client's physical well-being is crucial. This includes assessing and treating injuries, providing prophylactic medications to prevent possible infections (such as sexually transmitted infections), and ensuring the client's overall medical stability. Once the client's immediate medical needs are addressed, other interventions like psychological support, informing NGOs (Non-Governmental Organizations), and recording/reporting the incident can follow. However, the initial priority is the client's physical health and safety.
18. An emergency room nurse is assessing a 22 year old male who has been using opioids. What symptoms indicated the client has over dosed?
a. Constricted pupils and hypotension
b. Vomiting and tachypnea
c. Pupillary dilation and hypertensive crisis
d. Tremors and ataxia.
Answer: a. Constricted pupils and hypotension
Description:When assessing a 22-year-old male who has been using opioids, symptoms that indicate the client has overdosed include pupillary dilation (enlarged pupils) and hypertensive crisis (a sudden, severe increase in blood pressure). Opioid overdose can lead to various signs and symptoms, including respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils (constricted pupils), and even loss of consciousness. However, if opioids are taken in excessive amounts, they can cause a paradoxical reaction where the pupils dilate (become larger) instead of constricting. Additionally, opioids can also affect blood pressure regulation, potentially leading to a hypertensive crisis, where blood pressure rises to dangerous levels. It's important to recognize these symptoms promptly and seek medical assistance, as opioid overdoses can be life-threatening and require immediate intervention, such as administration of naloxone (a medication that can reverse opioid overdose effects).
19. Antidote of opioid is:
a. Administer adrenaline
b. Administer IV naloxone
c. Maintain hydration
d. Give charcoal
Answer: b. Administer IV naloxone
Description:The antidote for opioids is administering IV naloxone. Naloxone is a medication that can quickly reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening. Naloxone works by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain, reversing the respiratory depression and other effects of opioids. It's a critical intervention in cases of opioid overdose to help restore normal breathing and consciousness. Adrenaline, hydration maintenance, and charcoal are not effective antidotes for opioid overdose.
20. Antidote to benzodiazepine poising is:
a. N-Acetylcysteine
b. Naltrexone
c. Flumazenil
d. Barbiturates.
Answer: c. Flumazenil
Description:The antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning is administering flumazenil. Benzodiazepines are a class of medications often used for anxiety and sedation, but overdose or poisoning can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other harmful effects. Flumazenil is a medication that works by blocking the effects of benzodiazepines in the brain, helping to reverse their sedative and respiratory-depressant effects. It's an important intervention in cases of benzodiazepine overdose to restore consciousness and normal breathing. N-Acetylcysteine, naltrexone, and barbiturates are not the correct antidotes for benzodiazepine poisoning.
21. The drug used in paracetamol (acetaminophen) poisoning
a. Naloxone
b. Acetyl salicylic acid
c. Flumazenil
d. N-Acetylcysteine
Answer: d. N-Acetylcysteine
Description:In cases of paracetamol (acetaminophen) poisoning, the drug used for treatment is N-Acetylcysteine. Paracetamol overdose can lead to liver damage, and N-Acetylcysteine helps to replenish glutathione, a natural antioxidant in the body that helps protect the liver from the toxic effects of paracetamol breakdown products. This treatment is most effective when administered as soon as possible after an overdose to prevent or minimize liver damage. The other options listed are not used to treat paracetamol poisoning: a. Naloxone: Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain. b. Acetyl salicylic acid (Aspirin): This is a pain reliever and anti-inflammatory medication, but it's not used to treat paracetamol poisoning. c. Flumazenil: Flumazenil is used as a reversal agent for benzodiazepine overdose, as it can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of these medications. It is not used for paracetamol poisoning.
22. Symptoms of central nervous system depression, cardiac depression and optic nerve atrophy in methanol poisoning is due to:
a. Acetic acid
b. Acetaldehyde
c. Pyridine
d. Formaldehyde and formic acid
Answer: d. Formaldehyde and formic acid
Description:In cases of methanol poisoning, the symptoms of central nervous system depression, cardiac depression, and optic nerve atrophy are primarily due to the metabolic breakdown of methanol into formaldehyde and formic acid. Methanol itself is initially metabolized into formaldehyde by the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase. Then, formaldehyde is further metabolized into formic acid. Both formaldehyde and formic acid are toxic to the central nervous system, the heart, and various organs, including the optic nerve. They can lead to a range of symptoms, including neurological impairment, cardiac issues, and visual problems like optic nerve atrophy. It's important to provide prompt medical treatment to manage methanol poisoning and prevent these harmful effects.
23. The most useful bedside diagnostic test to suggest snake bite envenomation is:
a. Platelet count
b. Bleeding time
c. International normalized ratio
d. 20 min whole blood clothing time
Answer: d. 20 min whole blood clothing time
Description:In cases of snake bite envenomation, one of the most useful bedside diagnostic tests to suggest envenomation is the 20-minute whole blood clotting time. This test involves observing the blood's ability to clot within a specified time frame. Snake venoms can contain substances that affect blood clotting, leading to abnormalities in the clotting process. The other options mentioned are also relevant to assessing the effects of snake envenomation, but the 20-minute whole blood clotting time specifically focuses on the blood's clotting ability, which is often impacted by venom. Platelet count (a) and bleeding time (b) can be affected due to the impact on clotting factors, while the international normalized ratio (c) reflects the effectiveness of blood clotting factors as well. However, the 20-minute whole blood clotting time is particularly relevant in evaluating the direct impact of venom on blood clotting.
24. Antidote for anticholinergic poisoning is:
a. Atropine
b. Physostigmine
c. Pyridoxine
d. Beta blockers.
Answer: b. Physostigmine
Description:In cases of anticholinergic poisoning, the antidote that can be used is physostigmine. Anticholinergic substances block the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that plays a role in various bodily functions. Physostigmine is a medication that reverses the effects of anticholinergic poisoning by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby increasing its concentration in the body. This helps to counteract the toxic effects of the anticholinergic substances. The other options mentioned are not specific antidotes for anticholinergic poisoning: a. Atropine: Atropine itself is an anticholinergic medication and would not be used to treat anticholinergic poisoning. c. Pyridoxine: This is also known as vitamin B6 and is not typically used as an antidote for anticholinergic poisoning. d. Beta blockers: Beta blockers are used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and certain heart conditions. They are not relevant to treating anticholinergic poisoning.
25. Deferoxamine is an antidote of:
a. Lead
b. Iron
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium
Answer: b. Iron
Description:Deferoxamine is an antidote used to treat iron poisoning. Iron poisoning can occur when someone ingests a large amount of iron-containing substances, such as iron supplements. Deferoxamine works by binding to excess iron in the body, forming a complex that can be excreted in urine. This helps to reduce the toxic effects of iron overload, which can be particularly dangerous for organs like the liver and heart. The other options mentioned are not treated with deferoxamine: a. Lead: Lead poisoning is typically treated with medications like chelation therapy using substances like dimercaprol or succimer. c. Calcium: Calcium toxicity is managed based on the specific cause and would not be treated with deferoxamine. d. Magnesium: Magnesium toxicity is managed by discontinuing magnesium-containing medications or reducing magnesium intake, but it is not treated with deferoxamine.
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