NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 153
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1. Clinical manifestation of cocaine overdose includes:
a. Lacrimation, restlessness, and irritability
b. Agitation, cardiac dysrhythmias, and seizures
c. Euphoria, nausea and vomiting
d. Altered respirations; hyporeflexia and blurred vision
Answer: b. Agitation, cardiac dysrhythmias, and seizures
Description:Clinical manifestations are the signs and symptoms that show up when someone has taken too much cocaine. In the case of a cocaine overdose, the correct answer is b: Agitation (feeling very anxious or restless), cardiac dysrhythmias (irregular heartbeat), and seizures (uncontrolled movements or convulsions) are the main things that can happen. These symptoms are a clear sign that someone has taken too much cocaine and needs medical help right away.
2. A 12-year-old child was brough to the emergency department 30 minutes after accidental ingestion of 12 tables of paracetamol 650 mg. which of the following intervention is the priority for this child?
a. Administer N-Acetylcysteine
b. Administer activated charcoal
c. Perform gastric lavage
d. Administer 5% dextrose in half normal saline
Answer: b. Administer activated charcoal
Description:The priority intervention for the 12-year-old child who accidentally ingested 12 tablets of 650 mg paracetamol is b: Administer activated charcoal. Activated charcoal is a substance that can help absorb and prevent the body from absorbing the paracetamol. This is important because a large overdose of paracetamol can harm the liver. Activated charcoal can help reduce the amount of the drug that gets into the bloodstream. This should be done as quickly as possible to minimize the potential harm.
3. Warfarin (Coumadin) toxicity can be treated with:
a. Phytonadione (Vitamin K)
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Acetyl cysteine
d. Heparin
Answer: a. Phytonadione (Vitamin K)
Description:Vitamin K is an antidote of warfarin. Since warfarin has a much longer duration of action than vitamin K, vitamin K may need to be re-administered in patients with massive warfarin overdose or ongoing bleeding.
4. Which of the following poisoning form strong bond with hemoglobin and creates a functional anemia?
a. Carbon monoxide poisoning
b. Atropine poisoning
c. Organophosphorus poisoning
d. Arsenic poisoning
Answer: a. Carbon monoxide poisoning
Description:Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas that can enter the body when you breathe in smoke or fumes from burning fuels. It forms a strong bond with hemoglobin, which is the part of red blood cells that carries oxygen. When carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin, it prevents oxygen from attaching to it, which means less oxygen gets transported to the body's tissues. This creates a type of functional anemia because the body isn't getting enough oxygen
5. CPAP stands for:
a. Continuous permanent airway pressure
b. Continuous positive airway pressure
c. Continuous prolonged airway pressure
d. Continuous passive airway pressure
Answer: b. Continuous positive airway pressure
Description:CPAP stands for Continuous Positive Airway Pressure. It's a medical device and treatment used to help people with breathing difficulties, like sleep apnea. CPAP works by delivering a continuous stream of air pressure into the person's airways, helping to keep them open and making it easier for them to breathe while sleeping.
6. PEEP in ventilator helps to:
a. Prevent collapse of alveoli
b. Prevent oxygen toxicity
c. Prevent ventilator fighting
d. Avoid over ventilator
Answer: a. Prevent collapse of alveoli
Description:PEEP is used to prevent the tiny air sacs in the lungs, called alveoli, from collapsing completely during exhalation. When someone is on a ventilator, the pressure in their lungs can fluctuate and cause these air sacs to close up. By applying a small amount of continuous pressure at the end of each breath (end-expiratory), PEEP keeps the alveoli slightly open, improving overall lung function and gas exchange. This helps the patient breathe more efficiently and effectively.
7. All of the following true about positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP); EXCEPT:
a. It reduces venous return
b. It improves alveolar gas exchanges
c. It prevent alveolar collapse
d. It decreases mean airway pressure
Answer: d. It decreases mean airway pressure
Description:Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is the positive pressure that will remain in the airways at the end of the respiratory cycle (end of exhalation) that is greater than the atmospheric pressure in mechanically ventilated patients. PEEP is applied to recruit lung volumes, elevated mean airways pressure, and improve oxygenation.
8. Which among the following is a non-invasive ventilation methods?
a. SIMV
b. Bi PAP
c. Laryngeal mask airway
d. Pressure support ventilation
Answer: b. Bi PAP
Description:Bi PAP stands for Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure. It's a non-invasive method that uses a mask to deliver air pressure to the lungs. This helps keep the airways open and assists with breathing. It's often used for conditions like sleep apnea or during certain breathing difficulties. Unlike some other options listed, Bi PAP doesn't require putting a tube down the throat, making it a non-invasive way to provide breathing support.
9. Which one of the these is not weaning mode?
a. CMV
b. C-PAP
c. Bi PAP
d. PSV
Answer: a. CMV
Description:CMV stands for Continuous Mandatory Ventilation. It's not a weaning mode because it doesn't focus on reducing the ventilator support gradually. Instead, it provides a constant set rate of breaths, which might not be suitable for someone who's ready to breathe more on their own. The other options, like C-PAP, Bi PAP, and PSV, are all methods used during the weaning process to help the person regain more control over their breathing while still receiving some support.
10. Patient’s fighting with the ventilator is called:
a. Buking
b. Weaning
c. Kinking
d. Distress
Answer: a. Buking
Description:When a patient is struggling or fighting against the ventilator's assistance, it's called "bucking." This can happen when there's a mismatch between the patient's natural breathing pattern and the ventilator's settings. It's important to adjust the ventilator settings properly to avoid this and ensure that the patient is comfortable and supported in their breathing.
11. Why pressurized bag is used in arterial line monitoring ?
a. To prevent the backflow of blood in the tubing
b. To prevent blood leakage
c. To maintain the shape of saline bag
d. To provide bolus dose
Answer: a. To prevent the backflow of blood in the tubing
Description:An arterial line is a thin catheter inserted into an artery, usually in the wrist or groin, to directly monitor blood pressure and obtain frequent blood samples. To ensure accurate and continuous measurements, a pressurized bag containing a saline solution is connected to the arterial line system. The pressurized bag applies a gentle and consistent pressure to the system, which helps prevent the blood from leaking out of the arterial catheter and into the tubing. This pressure also helps to keep the arterial line open and free from clot formation or air bubbles, ensuring reliable and accurate monitoring of the patient's blood pressure and allowing for safe blood sampling when need
12. Which of these can provide 100% O2?
a. Bag value mask alone
b. Bag values mask with supplemental O2
c. Oxygen via facemask
d. Partial rebreather mask
Answer: b. Bag values mask with supplemental O2
Description:A bag valve mask is a medical device used to help a person breathe when they can't do so adequately on their own. By itself, a bag valve mask (option a) doesn't provide 100% oxygen. However, when used with supplemental oxygen (option b), the bag valve mask can deliver a mixture of oxygen and air that is very close to 100% oxygen concentration. This is important in emergency situations where a patient might need a high concentration of oxygen to support their breathing and improve their oxygen levels. The other options, such as oxygen via a facemask (option c) or a partial rebreather mask (option d), might provide varying levels of oxygen concentration, but they may not deliver as high a concentration as the combination of a bag valve mask with supplemental oxygen.
13. C wave in the CVP waveform denotes
a. Onset of atrial systole
b. Onset of Ventricular diastole
c. Onset of ventricular systole
d. Onset of arterial diastole
Answer: c. Onset of ventricular systole
Description:In a Central Venous Pressure (CVP) waveform, the C wave corresponds to a small upward bump or peak. This C wave is caused by the movement of the tricuspid valve (a valve in the heart) during the contraction of the right ventricle. This contraction is known as ventricular systole. The C wave doesn't represent the onset of atrial or arterial activity, but rather the mechanical response of the heart's structures during a specific phase of the cardiac cycle.
14. Which among the following is a criterion to classify a death as brain death?
a. Presence of EEG activity
b. Cessation of breathing
c. Responsive to deep pain
d. Hypothermia
Answer: b. Cessation of breathing
Description:Brain death is defined as the irreversible loss of all function of the brain, including the brainstem. The three essential findings in brain death are coma, absence of brainstem reflexes and apnea.
15. The suction of the internal fluids, of the corpse and the injection of embalming chemicals into body cavities using an aspirator and trocar is the method of:
a. Surface embalming
b. Cavity embalming
c. Hypodermic embalming
d. Arterial embalming
Answer: b. Cavity embalming
Description:Cavity embalming involves using an aspirator to suction internal fluids from body cavities and using a trocar to inject embalming chemicals into those cavities. This method is specifically focused on treating the internal areas of the body to preserve the remains. It's used in addition to other embalming methods to ensure that the body is thoroughly embalmed, especially in areas that may not be reached effectively through other techniques.
16. In which of the following stages of Kubler-Ross’ grief process. The individual postpones awareness of reality as though the loss can be prevented?
a. Denial
b. Anger
c. Bargaining
d. Depression
Answer: c. Bargaining
Description:In Kubler-Ross' grief process model, during the stage of bargaining, individuals often try to negotiate or make deals to reverse or prevent the loss they're experiencing. This is a way of postponing the full acceptance of the reality of the loss. They might believe that if they do or say certain things, they can change the outcome or avoid the pain. This stage reflects a natural human response to cope with the overwhelming emotions that come with grief.
17. In which of the following stage of Kubler-Ross’ grief process, the individual acts as though nothing has happened and may to believer or understand the loss has occurred.
a. Denial
b. Anger
c. Bargaining
d. Depression
Answer: a. Denial
Description:In Kubler-Ross' grief process model, during the stage of denial, individuals find it hard to believe or understand that a loss has occurred. They might act as though nothing has happened and avoid facing the reality of the situation. This is a common initial reaction to cope with the shock and overwhelming emotions that come with grief. It's a way for individuals to create a buffer from the intense pain, but eventually, as they move through the grieving process, they come to terms with the loss and begin to process their feelings.
18. An individual in which of the following age group will have an attitude towards death that is influenced by religions and cultural beliefs?
a. 5 to 10 years
b. 9 to 12 years
c. 12 to 18 years
d. 18 to 45 years.
Answer: d. 18 to 45 years.
Description:During the age range of 18 to 45 years, individuals are typically adults who have developed a more complex understanding of the world around them, including religious and cultural beliefs. Their attitudes towards death are often influenced by these beliefs, as well as by their personal experiences and societal perspectives. They have had more time to contemplate the concept of death, and their outlook may be shaped by the values and traditions they've been exposed to. This age group is more likely to have formed a deeper and more nuanced understanding of death and its meaning within the context of their beliefs and culture
19. A 75-years old woman has never gotten over the death of her daughter 15 years ago. She reports that she always feels sad and never again able to enjoy life as before. Which of the following type of grief is being experienced by this woman?
a. Anticipatory grief
b. Dysfunctional grief
c. Cumulative grief
d. Inhibited grief
Answer: b. Dysfunctional grief
Description:In this scenario, the woman's persistent sadness and inability to enjoy life after her daughter's death indicate that she is experiencing dysfunctional grief. Dysfunctional grief, also known as complicated grief or prolonged grief disorder, is characterized by an intense and prolonged mourning process that interferes with an individual's ability to adapt to life without the deceased person. It can lead to a significant impairment in daily functioning and a persistent sense of sadness and longing. This type of grief often requires professional support and intervention to help the person cope and eventually find ways to adjust to their loss.
20. All of the following are the manifestation of brain death; EXCEPT:
a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Pupils do not respond to light
c. Pulse rate unresponsive to atropine
d. EEG show only delta waves.
Answer: d. EEG show only delta waves.
Description:Brain death is the irreversible cessation of all brain activity, including the brainstem functions that control vital processes. It's a clinical and legal definition of death. The manifestations of brain death include various signs and tests to confirm the absence of brain function. The other options listed are all manifestations of brain death: a. Diabetes insipidus: This refers to a condition where the body is unable to properly regulate water balance due to a lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Brain death can lead to disruption of hormone production, including ADH. b. Pupils do not respond to light: In brain death, the brainstem's reflexes, including the pupillary reflex, are lost. Pupils become fixed and dilated, and they do not respond to changes in light. c. Pulse rate unresponsive to atropine: Brain death results in the loss of autonomic nervous system control. In a brain-dead person, the heart rate will not respond to medications like atropine that affect autonomic functions. d. EEG show only delta waves: Brain death is typically confirmed using EEG (electroencephalogram) readings that show a flat or isoelectric line, indicating no electrical activity in the brain. Delta waves are a type of brain wave, and their presence would actually indicate some level of brain activity, which contradicts the diagnosis of brain death.
21. The blood contains:
a. 95% of water
b. 60% of water
c. 90% of water
d. 80% of water
Answer: d. 80% of water
Description:Blood contains approximately 80% water. This means that out of the total content in blood, about 80% of it is made up of water.
22. Pain is:
a. Unpleasant experience
b. Subjective in nature
c. Both a and b
d. Maladaptive behavior
Answer: c. Both a and b
Description:Pain is both an unpleasant experience and subjective in nature. This means that it can feel bad, and different people might experience and describe pain in their own personal ways.
23. Hydrophobia is seen in:
a. Scorpion bite
b. Dog bite
c. Snake bite
d. Spider bite
Answer: b. Dog bite
Description:Hydrophobia is seen in a dog bite. This means that if someone is bitten by a rabid dog, they might develop a fear of water or have difficulty swallowing due to the effects of the rabies virus on the nervous system.
24. Branch of science that determines the cause and manner of death is:
a. Immunopathology
b. Hematopathology
c. Forensic pathology
d. Histopathology
Answer: b. Hematopathology
Description:The branch of science that determines the cause and manner of death is forensic pathology. This involves studying the body to figure out how and why someone has died, especially in cases that might involve crimes or accidents.
25. Substances poorly absorbed by activated charcoal include all; EXCEPT:
a. Lead
b. Lithium
c. Cyanide
d. Phenobarbital
Answer: d. Phenobarbital
Description:Substances poorly absorbed by activated charcoal include all, EXCEPT phenobarbital. This means that activated charcoal can effectively absorb lead, lithium, and cyanide, but it's not as effective at absorbing phenobarbital.
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