NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 161
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1. Which nutrient has the highest calorie?
a. Carbohydrate
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Vitamin
Answer: c. Fat
Description:Fat has the highest calorie. The calorie value of carbohydrate and protein is 4 kcal/whereas calorie value of fat is 9 kcal/g.
2. Most preferred energy source of the body is:
a. Carbohydrate
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Minerals
Answer: a. Carbohydrate
Description:Chief source of energy for the body is carbohydrate
3. Nutrient that helps in tissue repair is:
a. Vitamin
b. Protein
c. Carbohydrate
d. Fat
Answer: b. Protein
Description:Proteins play a crucial role in tissue repair and regeneration. They are made up of amino acids, which are the building blocks for various tissues in the body. During tissue repair, the body requires amino acids to build new cells, repair damaged tissues, and support overall healing. Protein is essential for maintaining and restoring the structural integrity of tissues, as well as for supporting various biochemical processes involved in the healing process.
4. Movement of a body part towards the body’s midline is termed as:
a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. Extension
d. Pronation
Answer: b. Adduction
Description:Adduction refers to the movement of a body part toward the body's midline. It is the opposite of abduction, which involves moving a body part away from the body's midline.
5. Movement of a body part away from the body’s midline is termed as:
a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. Extension
d. Pronation
Answer: a. Abduction
Description:Abduction refers to the movement of a body part away from the body's midline. It is the opposite of adduction, which involves moving a body part toward the body's midline.
6. Bending of a part, or decreasing the angle between two parts is known as:
a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. Extension
d. Pronation
Answer: c. Extension
Description:Extension refers to the bending of a joint or increasing the angle between two body parts. It is the opposite of flexion, which involves decreasing the angle between two body parts.
7. Increasing the angle between two parts is known as:
a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. Extension
d. Pronation
Answer: d. Pronation
Description:Pronation refers to the rotation of the forearm or the foot so that the palm or sole is facing downward. It doesn't involve increasing the angle between two body parts.
8. Inward movement of the foot is termed as:
a. Supination
b. Flexion
c. Pronation
d. Extension
Answer: c. Pronation
Description:Pronation refers to the rotation of the forearm or the foot so that the palm or sole is facing downward. It doesn't specifically involve inward movement of the foot. The correct answer to your question is d. Supination. Supination refers to the outward movement of the foot, where the sole of the foot faces upward.
9. Health promotion activities can include all; EXCEPT:
a. Exercise
b. Habitual drinking of alcohol
c. Safe sexual practice.
d. Balanced nutrition
Answer: b. Habitual drinking of alcohol
Description:Health promotion activities generally focus on encouraging positive behaviors and practices that enhance overall well-being and prevent health problems. While options a, c, and d (balanced nutrition, exercise, and safe sexual practice) are all examples of health promotion activities, habitual drinking of alcohol is not considered a positive behavior in terms of health promotion. Excessive alcohol consumption can lead to various health issues and is not typically promoted as a part of health promotion efforts.
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines the term “health�
a. Health is state of optimal function
b. Health is always an objective data
c. Health is not determined by the patient
d. Health is an absence of illness
Answer: a. Health is state of optimal function
Description:Health is often defined as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or illness. Option a accurately reflects this definition by stating that health is a state of optimal function, encompassing various aspects of well-being beyond just the absence of illness.
11. Patient’s health is determined based upon:
a. Behavior
b. Knowledge
c. Family support
d. Education
Answer: a. Behavior
Description:A patient's health is often determined based on their behaviors, which include lifestyle choices, habits, and actions that can influence their overall well-being. Behaviors such as diet, exercise, tobacco use, alcohol consumption, and adherence to medical recommendations play a significant role in determining a person's health status. While factors like family support, knowledge, and education also contribute to health, behavior is a primary determinant of health outcomes.
12. Characteristics of a chronic illness is:
a. Has a predictable clinical course and prognosis
b. Always starts with an acute illness and then gradually deteriorates.
c. Results in permanent deviation from normal
d. Has reversible pathologic changes
Answer: c. Results in permanent deviation from normal
Description:Chronic illnesses are typically characterized by long-lasting and persistent conditions that result in a permanent deviation from the normal state of health. Unlike acute illnesses, which have a sudden onset and often a short duration, chronic illnesses are ongoing and can have varying degrees of severity. They may not necessarily lead to reversible pathologic changes, and while some chronic illnesses may have predictable clinical courses and prognoses (option b), the defining characteristic is the long-term impact on the individual's health and well-being.
13. Health promotion in the older adults is primarily focused on:
a. Adherence to medication
b. Avoid smoking
c. Teaching positive health behaviors
d. Talking to others.
Answer: c. Teaching positive health behaviors
Description:Health promotion in older adults focuses on encouraging and teaching positive health behaviors that can help maintain and improve their overall well-being as they age. This can include promoting regular exercise, balanced nutrition, proper medication management, social engagement, mental stimulation, and other activities that contribute to a healthy and active lifestyle. While adherence to medication (option a) and avoiding smoking (option b) are important aspects of health promotion, they are not the primary focus. Option d, "talking to others," is not a comprehensive description of health promotion strategies for older adults.
14. A sudden redness of these kind is termed as:
a. Flush
b. Jaundice
c. Cyanosis
d. Pallor
Answer: a. Flush
Description:A sudden redness of the skin, often due to increased blood flow and dilation of blood vessels, is referred to as a flush. This can be caused by various factors such as embarrassment, fever, certain medical conditions, or external stimuli.
15. Bed breath is known as:
a. Periodontal diseases
b. Halitosis
c. Cheilosis
d. Sordes
Answer: b. Halitosis
Description:Halitosis refers to the condition commonly known as "bad breath." It can be caused by various factors such as poor oral hygiene, certain foods, underlying medical conditions, and more. Periodontal diseases (option a) refer to diseases affecting the structures around the teeth. Cheilosis (option c) is a condition characterized by dry and cracked lips. Sordes (option d) refers to a collection of thick, brownish secretions that can accumulate in the mouth, particularly in individuals who are seriously ill or debilitated.
16. First heart sound S1 indicates closure of………………valves:
a. Mitral and tricuspid
b. Aortic and pulmonic
c. Mitral and pulmonic
d. Tricuspid and aortic
Answer: a. Mitral and tricuspid
Description:The first heart sound, S1, is produced by the closure of the mitral (bicuspid) and tricuspid valves. This sound marks the beginning of the systolic phase of the cardiac cycle.
17. Second heart sound S2 indicates closure of…………….values
a. Mitral and tricuspid
b. Aortic and pulmonic
c. Mitral and pulmonic
d. Tricuspid and aortic
Answer: b. Aortic and pulmonic
Description:The second heart sound, S2, is produced by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic (pulmonary) valves. This sound occurs at the end of the systolic phase and marks the beginning of diastole in the cardiac cycle.
18. The nurse is collecting data on a patient with a ruptured appendix that is painful. Where would the nurse expects the patients’ pain to be located?
a. Right upper quadrant
b. Right lower quadrant
c. Left upper quadrant
d. Left lower quadrant
Answer: b. Right lower quadrant
Description:Pain from a ruptured appendix typically starts in the central area of the abdomen, around the navel, and then shifts to the right lower quadrant as the inflammation progresses. The right lower quadrant is the usual location of the most intense pain associated with appendicitis.
19. During physical assessment of children, asymmetry of the skull indicates:
a. Hydrocephalus
b. Craniotabes
c. Craniosynostosis
d. osteogenesis imperfect
Answer: c. Craniosynostosis
Description:Craniosynostosis is a condition where the sutures (joints between the bones) in a baby's skull close too early. This can lead to an asymmetrical or misshapen head. Asymmetry of the skull in children is often associated with craniosynostosis, where the premature closure of sutures affects the growth of the skull bones. This condition can require medical attention and sometimes surgical intervention to correct the abnormal skull shape.
20. A low-pitched continuous gurgling sounds caused by secretions in the large airways is called:
a. Wheezing
b. Rhonchi
c. Coughing
d. Stridor
Answer: b. Rhonchi
Description:Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound made while breathing. Stridor is a high pitched, wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow.
21. When a nurse is doing a physical examination for a patient, she notices the patients grimace. The nursing diagnostic process the nurse used here is:
a. Data interpretation
b. Data clustering
c. Concept mapping
d. Data collection.
Answer: b. Data clustering
Description:Data clustering involves the process of grouping and categorizing related data to identify patterns and potential connections. In this scenario, the nurse noticed the patient's grimace, which is a piece of data. By recognizing this physical response along with other data, such as the patient's medical history and other signs, the nurse can cluster the data together to identify potential patterns or relationships that might indicate a particular health condition or issue. Data interpretation (option a) would involve making sense of the data clusters, and data collection (option d) is the initial step of gathering information. Concept mapping (option c) is a visual representation of relationships among concepts, often used in education and planning, but it's not directly related to the process of recognizing patterns in physical examination data.
22. Positive Babinski is:
a. Abnormal for adults
b. Abnormal for children
c. Abnormal for all age group
d. All of the above
Answer: a. Abnormal for adults
Description:The Babinski reflex is a neurological reflex that is commonly tested in infants and young children. In a positive Babinski sign, when the sole of the foot is stroked, the big toe moves upward and the other toes fan out. This is a normal response in infants and young children because their nervous systems are still developing. In adults, a positive Babinski sign is considered abnormal and may indicate a neurological issue, such as damage to the upper motor neurons or certain neurological disorders. In adults, the normal response to sole stimulation is the opposite, where the toes curl downward.
23. Instrument used for examining eye is:
a. Otoscope
b. Proctoscope
c. Ophthalmoscope
d. Endoscope
Answer: c. Ophthalmoscope
Description:An ophthalmoscope is an instrument used by medical professionals, particularly ophthalmologists and optometrists, to examine the inside of the eye, including the retina, optic nerve, blood vessels, and other structures. It emits light and magnification, allowing healthcare providers to assess the health of the eye's internal structures and detect any abnormalities or signs of eye diseases. The other options listed are instruments used for different purposes, such as examining the ear (otoscope), rectum (proctoscope), and various internal organs (endoscope). User Visual acuity can be assessed with a. Ophthalmoscope b. Snellen chart c. Goniometer d. Refractometer Ans: b ChatGPT The correct answer is b. Snellen chart. Visual acuity, which measures how well a person can see fine details, is commonly assessed using a Snellen chart. This chart consists of rows of letters or symbols of varying sizes, and the person being tested is asked to read the smallest line of letters they can see clearly from a standardized distance. The result is typically expressed as a fraction, where the numerator represents the distance at which the test was performed and the denominator represents the distance at which a person with normal vision could read the same line. The other options listed are instruments or tools used for different purposes in eye care: ophthalmoscope (option a) for examining the inside of the eye, goniometer (option c) for measuring angles, and refractometer (option d) for measuring the refractive error of the eye. An ophthalmoscope is an instrument used by medical professionals, particularly ophthalmologists and optometrists, to examine the inside of the eye, including the retina, optic nerve, blood vessels, and other structures. It emits light and magnification, allowing healthcare providers to assess the health of the eye's internal structures and detect any abnormalities or signs of eye diseases. The other options listed are instruments used for different purposes, such as examining the ear (otoscope), rectum (proctoscope), and various internal organs (endoscope).
24. Which among the following data will give more accurate information regarding an end stage renal disease client’s fluid status?
a. Daily weight of the client
b. Intake and output chart
c. Electrolyte level
d. Bowel movement
Answer: a. Daily weight of the client
Description:Daily weight of the client give more accurate information 1L = 1kg (Approx)
25. Visual acuity can be assessed with
a. Ophthalmoscope
b. Snellen chart
c. Goniometer
d. Refractometer
Answer: b. Snellen chart
Description:Visual acuity, which measures how well a person can see fine details, is commonly assessed using a Snellen chart. This chart consists of rows of letters or symbols of varying sizes, and the person being tested is asked to read the smallest line of letters they can see clearly from a standardized distance. The result is typically expressed as a fraction, where the numerator represents the distance at which the test was performed and the denominator represents the distance at which a person with normal vision could read the same line. The other options listed are instruments or tools used for different purposes in eye care: ophthalmoscope (option a) for examining the inside of the eye, goniometer (option c) for measuring angles, and refractometer (option d) for measuring the refractive error of the eye.
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