NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 181
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1. Choosing the appropriate catheter depends on:
a. The expected duration of catheterization
b. The size of the patient urethral canal
c. Knowledge of any allergies to latex or plastic
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Description:Choosing the appropriate catheter indeed depends on all the factors mentioned: a. Knowledge of any allergies to latex or plastic: This is important to ensure that the material of the catheter does not cause an allergic reaction in the patient. b. The expected duration of catheterization: Different types of catheters are suitable for different durations of catheterization. For example, an indwelling catheter might be used for long-term catheterization, while intermittent catheters might be more appropriate for short-term use. c. The size of the patient's urethral canal: The size of the urethral canal varies among individuals, and using a catheter of appropriate size ensures proper insertion and minimal discomfort. Considering all of these factors together helps healthcare professionals choose the most appropriate catheter for a patient's specific needs and circumstances.
2. Curved or coude catheters have:
a. A rounded curved tip
b. A signal lumen with a small 1 1/24 cm opening
c. A single lumen with a small 1 ¼ cm opening
d. An inflatable balloon than encircles the tip near the lumen or opening.
Answer: a. A rounded curved tip
Description:Curved or coude catheters feature a rounded, curved tip for smoother insertion and are designed to navigate obstacles within the urinary tract effectively.
3. Tracheostomy is usually performed between the tracheal rings of cartilage of:
a. First and second
b. Fourth and fifth
c. Second and third
d. Third and fourth
Answer: c. Second and third
Description:A tracheostomy is a surgical procedure in which a small opening, known as a stoma, is created in the front of the neck directly into the trachea (windpipe) to provide an alternative airway. This procedure is often performed in situations where a patient is experiencing breathing difficulties due to upper airway obstruction, the need for long-term ventilator support, or other medical conditions affecting the respiratory system. The choice of the specific location on the trachea for performing a tracheostomy is a critical decision made by the medical team based on various anatomical and clinical considerations. The answer choice c, "Second and third," refers to the typical location between the second and third tracheal rings of cartilage, and here's why: Anatomical Considerations: The trachea is made up of a series of C-shaped cartilage rings that provide structural support while allowing flexibility and movement during breathing. The second and third tracheal rings are often selected for a tracheostomy due to their accessible location and the relatively reduced risk of damaging vital structures compared to higher or lower placements. Accessibility: The second and third tracheal rings are situated lower on the neck, which offers a more straightforward approach for creating the stoma. This positioning facilitates easier insertion of the tracheostomy tube and provides better visibility for medical professionals performing the procedure. Minimized Risk: Placing the tracheostomy between the second and third rings helps minimize the risk of complications associated with damaging the thyroid gland (located above the trachea) or major blood vessels (located below the trachea). It also helps to avoid the cricoid cartilage, which is more rigid and less suitable for a safe tracheostomy incision. Improved Airflow: Selecting the second and third tracheal rings allows for effective ventilation and air exchange. The opening provides a direct pathway for air to enter the trachea, bypassing any potential obstructions higher up in the airway. Reduced Movement Impact: Placing the tracheostomy lower on the neck helps minimize the impact of neck movement on the tracheostomy tube, reducing the risk of accidental dislodgment or complications due to movement.
4. Most important concern while providing oral care to an unconscious client is:
a. Provide oral care in each shift
b. Preventing aspiration
c. Look for denture
d. Use ordered mouth care solution
Answer: b. Preventing aspiration
Description:When an unconscious patient receives oral care, preventing aspiration (the inhalation of fluids or particles into the lungs) takes precedence as it can lead to serious respiratory complications. Proper positioning and techniques are crucial to minimize the risk of aspiration during oral care. While the other options are important aspects of care, ensuring the patient's safety by preventing aspiration is paramount.
5. After a surgical procedure, stocking are usually used to:
a. All of the above.
b. Promote venous return to the heart
c Prevent varicose veins
d. Prevent muscular atrophy
Answer: b. Promote venous return to the heart
Description:After a surgical procedure, the use of stockings, often referred to as compression stockings or anti-embolism stockings, serves the primary purpose of promoting venous return to the heart. These stockings are specifically designed to exert graduated pressure on the lower extremities, with the highest pressure at the ankle and gradually decreasing pressure as they move up the leg. This compression helps in several important ways: Preventing Venous Stasis: After surgery, patients may experience reduced mobility and prolonged periods of immobility, which can lead to a condition known as venous stasis. Venous stasis occurs when blood pools in the veins of the lower extremities due to reduced circulation. This stagnant blood increases the risk of blood clots, specifically deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can be life-threatening if a clot breaks free and travels to the lungs (pulmonary embolism). Compression stockings help prevent venous stasis by aiding the movement of blood back towards the heart, reducing the risk of clot formation. Enhancing Venous Blood Flow: The pressure applied by the stockings helps the veins in the legs to narrow and maintain better blood flow against the force of gravity. This prevents blood from accumulating and causing swelling (edema) in the legs, ankles, and feet. Improved circulation also helps in the removal of waste products and excess fluid from the tissues. Aiding Postoperative Recovery: Surgical procedures can lead to inflammation and fluid retention in the tissues surrounding the surgical site. Compression stockings assist in reducing this inflammation and preventing excessive fluid accumulation, thereby promoting faster healing and minimizing discomfort. Supporting Muscle Pump Action: The calf muscles play a crucial role in venous return. When they contract, they act as a pump, squeezing the veins and propelling blood towards the heart. Compression stockings provide external support to the calf muscles, enhancing their pump action and aiding in venous return. In contrast to the options listed, while preventing varicose veins and maintaining muscle tone can be potential benefits of wearing compression stockings, the most critical reason for their use after surgery is to promote venous return and reduce the risk of complications related to reduced circulation. Therefore, the correct answer is indeed b: "Promote venous return to the heart."
6. Post-operative period respiratory complication can be prevented by:
a. Coughing exercises
b. Incentive spirometer
c. Deep breathing
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:Post-operative respiratory complications can indeed be prevented by practicing deep breathing exercises, coughing exercises, and using an incentive spirometer. These techniques help maintain lung function, prevent atelectasis (partial lung collapse), and reduce the risk of respiratory infections after surgery. Deep breathing: Deep breathing exercises help expand the lungs and improve ventilation, preventing the accumulation of secretions and maintaining lung function. Coughing exercises: Coughing exercises assist in clearing mucus and secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of infections and maintaining respiratory function. Incentive spirometer: An incentive spirometer is a device that encourages deep breathing and helps prevent lung complications. It helps the patient take slow, deep breaths and helps prevent atelectasis by promoting lung expansion. Using all these techniques in combination can significantly reduce the chances of post-operative respiratory complications.
7. Which of the following teaching approach is appropriate for a client with chest pain having emergency cardiac catheterization?
a. Trusting approach
b. Telling approach
c. Seling approach
d. All of these
Answer: b. Telling approach
Description:When a client is experiencing a medical emergency such as chest pain requiring emergency cardiac catheterization, the most appropriate teaching approach is the "telling" approach. In this situation, the healthcare provider needs to provide clear and concise instructions to the client without relying on their active participation in decision-making due to the urgency of the situation. The client's immediate safety and well-being take precedence, and quick, direct communication is crucial to ensure that they understand what is happening and what needs to be done. The "telling" approach involves providing essential information and instructions to the client in a straightforward manner, focusing on what they need to know and do to address the immediate situation. It may not involve detailed explanations or extensive discussions, as the primary goal is to address the emergency promptly and effectively.
8. Client tube drainage is useful in which of the following conditions:
a. Pneumothorax
b. Pleural effusion
c. Hemothorax
d. All of these
Answer: b. Pleural effusion
Description:Tube drainage is useful in the following conditions: a. Pneumothorax: Pneumothorax is a condition in which air accumulates in the pleural space (the space between the lung and the chest wall), causing the lung to collapse. Tube drainage can be used to remove the trapped air and allow the lung to re-expand. b. Pleural effusion: Pleural effusion is the accumulation of excess fluid in the pleural space. Tube drainage can be used to remove the accumulated fluid, relieving pressure on the lung and helping to improve breathing. c. Hemothorax: Hemothorax is the presence of blood in the pleural space, often resulting from trauma or injury. Tube drainage can be used to evacuate the blood and prevent further complications. In all of these conditions, tube drainage can be a valuable medical intervention to help alleviate symptoms, improve lung function, and promote the healing process.
9. Slow administration of NG feed helps to reduce:
a. Flatulence
b. Distension
c. Regurgitation
d. Indigestion
Answer: b. Distension
Description:Slow administration of nasogastric (NG) feed helps to reduce distension, which refers to the bloating and swelling of the stomach or abdomen. Feeding at a slower rate allows the digestive system to process the nutrients more effectively and reduces the risk of overloading the stomach, which can lead to distension and discomfort. This measured approach can also prevent potential complications such as regurgitation and aspiration.
10. Which of the following is a type of evacuant enema
a. Nutrient enema
b. Sedative enema
c. Cold enema
d. Anesthetic enema
Answer: c. Cold enema
Description:A nutrient enema is a type of enema that is given to provide nourishment to the patient, often containing substances like glucose or electrolytes. It is typically used when a patient is unable to take oral nutrition. Evacuant enemas are given to stimulate bowel movement and help in relieving constipation or fecal impaction. Cold enema, a type of evacuant enema, involves using cold fluids to stimulate peristalsis and encourage bowel evacuation. The other options (b, d) are not types of evacuant enemas.
11. Anthelmintic enema is given to:
a. Remove flatus
b. Destroy intestinal parasites
c. Remove foreign particles from large intestines.
d. Soften hard fecal matter
Answer: b. Destroy intestinal parasites
Description:Anthelmintic enema is a medical treatment that involves introducing a solution containing anthelmintic medications (medications that kill or expel parasitic worms) into the rectum and colon. The purpose of this enema is to target and eliminate intestinal parasites, such as worms, that may be present in the gastrointestinal tract. This treatment helps to rid the body of these harmful parasites and can be an effective way to manage parasitic infections.
12. Carminative enema is given to:
a. Soften hard fecal matter
b. Destroy intestinal parasites
c. Reduce body temperature
d. Induce sleep
Answer: a. Soften hard fecal matter
Description:A carminative enema is used to relieve gas and bloating from the intestines and to promote the passage of flatus (gas) from the rectum. It can help to alleviate discomfort caused by trapped gas and may also indirectly help in softening hard fecal matter, making it easier to pass. This type of enema is commonly used for individuals experiencing abdominal distension and discomfort due to excess gas accumulation.
13. The procedure that involves insertion of a tube through nose into stomach is known as:
a. Nasogastric irrigation
b. Nasogastric intubation
c. Gastric gavage
d. Endotracheal intubation
Answer: b. Nasogastric intubation
Description:Nasogastric intubation is a medical procedure that involves inserting a tube through the nose and down into the stomach. This procedure is commonly used for various purposes, including feeding, decompression (removing gas or fluids), administering medications, or obtaining gastric contents for analysis. It is a non-surgical method to access the stomach for diagnostic and therapeutic reasons.
14. To avoid pulling the urinary catheter, nurse should tape the catheter on patients’
a. Lower thigh
b. Upper thigh
c. Hind leg
d. Foot
Answer: b. Upper thigh
Description:To avoid pulling the urinary catheter, the nurse should secure the catheter tubing to the patient's upper thigh using medical tape or securement devices. This helps prevent accidental dislodgement or tension on the catheter, which could lead to complications. Placing the tape on the upper thigh allows for secure attachment while still allowing the patient some movement without putting excessive strain on the catheter insertion site.
15. Site for bone marrow aspiration is:
a. Iliac crest
b. Sternum
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Answer: c. Both a and b
Description:The sites commonly used for bone marrow aspiration are the iliac crest (located on the hip bone) and the sternum (breastbone). Both of these sites provide access to the bone marrow for aspiration, which is a procedure used to collect a sample of bone marrow for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes. The choice of site depends on factors such as the patient's age, the specific reason for the procedure, and the physician's preference.
16. The preferred site for bone marrow aspiration in children is:
a. Iliac crest
b. None of these
c. Sternum
d. Both a and b
Answer: a. Iliac crest
Description:The preferred site for bone marrow aspiration in children is often the iliac crest, which is located on the hip bone. This site is commonly used because it provides relatively easy access to the bone marrow and is less likely to interfere with the growth and development of the child's bones compared to the sternum (breastbone). While the sternum can also be used, the iliac crest is generally preferred for pediatric patients.
17. The preferred site for bone marrow aspiration in obsess patient is:
a. Inferior iliac crest
b. Anterior iliac crest
c. Posterior superior iliac crest
d. None of the above.
Answer: b. Anterior iliac crest
Description:In obese patients, the anterior iliac crest is often the preferred site for bone marrow aspiration. This location provides better access to the bone marrow while avoiding potential complications that may arise from attempting to reach the posterior iliac crest, especially in patients with increased subcutaneous fat. The anterior iliac crest is more accessible and can be a safer and more effective option for bone marrow aspiration in obese individuals.
18. Complications of blood transfusion include:
a. Anaphylactic reaction
b. Fluid overload
c. Hemolytic reaction
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:Complications of blood transfusion can include: a. Anaphylactic reaction: Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur in response to certain components of the transfused blood, such as plasma proteins. b. Fluid overload: Transfusing too much blood or fluids too quickly can lead to fluid overload, which can result in symptoms like shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and congestive heart failure. c. Hemolytic reaction: Hemolytic reactions occur when the immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells from an incompatible blood transfusion. This can lead to serious complications, including kidney failure and shock. These are just a few examples of the complications that can arise from blood transfusions. Close monitoring and adherence to proper transfusion protocols are essential to minimize the risk of complications.
19. Bronchoscopy is performed:
a. To view abnormalities of the airway
b. To obtain tissue specimens of the lung in a variety of disorders
c. To remove secretions, blood, or foreign objects lodged in the airway
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Bronchoscopy is a medical procedure that involves inserting a thin, flexible tube with a camera (bronchoscope) into the airways to view and diagnose various conditions. It is used for all the purposes listed: a. To view abnormalities of the airway: Bronchoscopy allows doctors to visualize the airways, identify any abnormalities, and assess the condition of the bronchial tubes and lungs. b. To obtain tissue specimens of the lung in a variety of disorders: Bronchoscopy can be used to take samples of tissue (biopsies) from the lungs to diagnose conditions such as lung infections, cancer, and other lung diseases. c. To remove secretions, blood, or foreign objects lodged in the airway: During bronchoscopy, doctors can suction out mucus, blood, or foreign objects that may be obstructing the airway, helping to improve breathing. Bronchoscopy is a versatile procedure that plays a significant role in diagnosing and treating various respiratory disorders.
20. A colostomy in the right side of the colon is known as:
a. Loop colostomy
b. Wet colostomy
c. Dry colostomy
d. Double barrel colostomy
Answer: b. Wet colostomy
Description:A colostomy on the right side of the colon is often referred to as a "wet colostomy." In a wet colostomy, the effluent (output) is more liquid in consistency because it is closer to the cecum, where the stool is less formed and more liquid. This type of colostomy typically requires a stoma appliance that can manage the liquid stool efficiently.
21. Plaster of Paris (POP) is chemically:
a. Calcium carbonate
b. Calcium sulfate
c. Calcium phosphate
d. Calcium magnate
Answer: b. Calcium sulfate
Description:Plaster of Paris (POP) is chemically calcium sulfate hemihydrate. It is produced by heating gypsum, which is a naturally occurring mineral composed of calcium sulfate dihydrate. When gypsum is heated and the water content is removed, it forms calcium sulfate hemihydrate, commonly known as plaster of Paris.
22. When a patient is getting shifted from the ward for CT scan a nurse should do the following:
a. Administer laxatives.
b. Explain the procedure
c. Administer a radio isotope
d. Give plenty of fluids.
Answer: b. Explain the procedure
Description:When a patient is getting shifted from the ward for a CT scan, a nurse should explain the procedure to the patient. Providing clear and concise information about what to expect during the CT scan helps alleviate anxiety and ensures that the patient is prepared for the process. This can also include instructions about any necessary preparations, such as fasting or contrast media administration. The other options (a, c, d) are not typically relevant to preparing a patient for a CT scan.
23. The nurse is caring for a patient who is bleeding from the punctured wound. Which of the following intervention should the nurse use to control the arterial bleeding?
a. Pressure at the puncture site.
b. Application of a tourniquet.
c. Pressure point massage.
d. Pressure dressing.
Answer: a. Pressure at the puncture site.
Description: To control arterial bleeding from a puncture wound, the nurse should apply direct pressure at the puncture site using a sterile gauze or cloth. Applying pressure helps to slow down or stop the bleeding by promoting clot formation and reducing blood flow to the area. It's important to maintain pressure until bleeding stops or until medical assistance arrives. Using a tourniquet (b) is generally not recommended for controlling bleeding from puncture wounds. Pressure point massage (c) is more suitable for controlling bleeding from specific arterial pressure points, and a pressure dressing (d) may be used after bleeding is controlled to maintain pressure and provide protection to the wound.
24. Which of the following actions should be taken first for a patient who is found with hyperthermia?
a. Undress the patient
b. Use tepid water as a mist spray
c. Remove patient from the hot environment
d. Place patient in continual breeze from electric fans.
Answer: c. Remove patient from the hot environment
Description:The first action that should be taken for a patient with hyperthermia is to remove the patient from the hot environment. Hyperthermia is an elevated body temperature that can be caused by exposure to high temperatures. Removing the patient from the source of heat is essential to prevent further increase in body temperature and to begin the cooling process. Once the patient is removed from the hot environment, other cooling measures such as using tepid water (b), undressing the patient (a), and providing a breeze (d) can be implemented to further lower the body temperature.
25. The nurse inserting a Ryle’s tube for an adult patient is aware that the distance between incisor teeth and gastroesophageal junction is:
a. 20 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 40 cm
d. 50 cm
Answer: c. 40 cm
Description:The distance between the incisor teeth and the gastroesophageal junction is approximately 40 cm for an adult patient. This measurement is used as a guideline to help ensure that the Ryle's tube is inserted to the appropriate depth during placement.
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