NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 183
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1. Recommended duration for completing suctioning of the tracheostomy tube is:
a. 5-10 seconds
b. 10-20 seconds
c. 20-30 seconds
c. 30-45 seconds
Answer: a. 5-10 seconds
Description:The recommended duration for completing suctioning of a tracheostomy tube is typically around 5-10 seconds, as indicated by option (a). It's important to avoid prolonged suctioning, as it can lead to hypoxia (low oxygen levels) and other complications. If more suctioning is needed, it's usually a good practice to allow the patient to rest and recover for a short period before attempting further suctioning. However, specific protocols might vary based on individual patient needs and healthcare provider preferences. Always follow the guidance of a qualified medical professional when performing any medical procedure.
2. A lethargic patient has fever, vomiting and headache. The nurse has to prepare him for which of the following procedures?
a. Blood culture
b. Lumbar puncture
c. CAT scan
d. Ultrasound scan
Answer: b. Lumbar puncture
Description:The combination of symptoms described (fever, vomiting, headache, and lethargy) is often indicative of a potential central nervous system infection or inflammation, such as meningitis. One of the appropriate diagnostic procedures for suspected meningitis is a lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap. This procedure involves collecting cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the spinal canal to analyze for signs of infection or other abnormalities
3. Patient complains of pain, muscles spasm and resistance while the nurse was doing a passive ROM exercise. Which of the following is most appropriate action in this scenario?
a. Assess degree of pain
b. Stop the exercise
c. Administer pain medication
d. Call physician
Answer: b. Stop the exercise
Description:When a patient complains of pain, muscle spasms, and resistance during a passive range of motion (ROM) exercise, the most appropriate action would be to stop the exercise. This reaction could indicate that the exercise is causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Stopping the exercise allows the nurse to assess the situation, evaluate the patient's response, and determine if any adjustments are needed before continuing or deciding on an alternative approach. If the symptoms persist or worsen, further assessment and communication with the physician might be necessary, but the immediate action should be to stop the exercise.
4. Regarding the request of organ and tissue donation at the time of death, the nurse needs to be aware that:
a. Requests are usually made by the nurse who case for the patient at time of death
b. Professionals needs to be very selective in whom they ask for organ and tissue donation
c. Specially educated personnel maker requests
d. Only patients who have given prior instruction regarding donation becomes donors.
Answer: c. Specially educated personnel maker requests
Description:Regarding the request of organ and tissue donation at the time of death, individuals specially trained in requesting organ donations facilitate the process. They are skilled in talking compassionately to people who have suffered a tragic, sudden loss and have answers to many questions that people have regarding he donation processes.
5. At the time of death of patient, it is appropriate to make request for organ donation by:
a. Specially educated counsellor
b. Nurse caring for the client
c. Family doctor
d. Any healthcare workers
Answer: a. Specially educated counsellor
Description:The appropriate professional to make a request for organ donation at the time of a patient's death is typically a specially educated counselor. Organ donation conversations require sensitivity, compassion, and thorough understanding of the process. Specially trained professionals, such as organ donation coordinators or counselors, are equipped with the necessary knowledge and communication skills to approach the topic of organ donation with the patient's family or next of kin. They can provide accurate information, address concerns, and guide the family through the decision-making process during a difficult and emotional time.
6. All of the following are the responsibilities of a nurse while caring for a patient suffering from thrombophlebitis; EXCEPT:
a. Educate client to avoid straining during defecation
b. Leg should not be massaged
c. Administer ordered anticoagulant
d. Keep the leg in dependent position.
Answer: d. Keep the leg in dependent position.
Description:While caring for a person with thrombophlebitis, educate the person to keep the leg slightly elevated on pillows, and slightly flexed at the level of knee in order to enhance venous return.
7. What is the management of persistent hiccups?
a. Ask person to drink water
b. Administer 3-10% carbon dioxide
c. Ask the person to walk in an open space
d. All of the above.
Answer: b. Administer 3-10% carbon dioxide
Description:Hiccups are diaphragmatic spasm which can be relived by administering 3-10% carbon dioxide.
8. Nursing measure for a patient who is complaining of difficult with micturition includes:
a. Sound of running water
b. Stroking in the inner thigh
c. Pour lukewarm water over the perineum
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:These nursing measures are commonly used to help facilitate micturition (urination) for patients who are experiencing difficulty: a. The sound of running water: This can help trigger the relaxation of the bladder and promote urination. Many people find the sound of running water soothing and it can help overcome psychological barriers to urination. b. Stroking in the inner thigh: Gentle stroking or tapping on the inner thigh can stimulate the reflexes associated with urination and help relax the pelvic muscles. c. Pouring lukewarm water over the perineum: This technique, known as perineal irrigation, can help stimulate the nerves in the perineal area and promote urination. These measures can be particularly useful for patients who have difficulty initiating micturition due to various reasons, such as psychological factors or physical discomfort. It's important to consider individual patient preferences and comfort when applying these techniques.
9. Thoracentesis is the treatment of choice of:
a. Hemothorax
b. Empyema
c. Hydrothorax
d. All of these.
Answer: d. All of these.
Description:Thoracentesis is a procedure to remove fluid from the space between the lungs and the chest wall called the pleural space. It is indicated in all the above conditions.
10. The tube introduced into the rectum of patient to relieve gas is known as:
a. Rectal tube
b. PEG tube
c. Foley’s catheter
d. NG tube
Answer: a. Rectal tube
Description:The tube introduced into the rectum of a patient to relieve gas is indeed known as a Rectal tube. Rectal tubes are used for the purpose of expelling excess gas and sometimes fecal matter from the rectum. They can provide relief in cases of flatulence or distention. The other options listed (PEG tube, Foley’s catheter, NG tube) serve different purposes and are not typically used for relieving gas from the rectum.
11. Collection of lymph fluid in the pleural space:
a. Hemothorax
b. Pneumothorax
c. Chylothorax
d. None of the above.
Answer: c. Chylothorax
Description:The collection of lymph fluid in the pleural space is known as Chylothorax. Chylothorax occurs when chyle, a milky lymphatic fluid rich in fats, accumulates in the pleural cavity due to leakage from the thoracic duct or its tributaries. This condition can lead to respiratory distress and requires appropriate medical management. The other terms mentioned (hemothorax and pneumothorax) refer to different conditions: Hemothorax: Refers to the presence of blood in the pleural space, usually due to injury or bleeding from the chest wall, lung, or other structures. Pneumothorax: Refers to the presence of air in the pleural space, which can lead to lung collapse and difficulty breathing.
12. Which of the following is the appropriate measures to prevent DVT and its complication:
a. Patients should wear elastic compression stockings.
b. Patients should observe special body position and perform indicated exercise.
c. Patients should use intermittent pneumatic compression.
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) devices increase blood flow through the veins and prevent blood clot. Elastics compression stockings help increase circulation and prevent blood clot formation. Special body positioning and specific exercise also help improving the blood circulation.
13. Which of the following intervention can prevent increased intracranial pressure in a patient with head trauma?
a. Maintain well lit room
b. Elevate the head end of the patient
c. Frequently change the position of the patient
d. Elevate the foot end of the patient
Answer: b. Elevate the head end of the patient
Description:To prevent increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a patient with head trauma, elevating the head end of the patient's bed is an appropriate intervention. This position, known as the "head of bed elevation," helps promote venous drainage from the head and brain, reducing the potential for elevated ICP. The other options mentioned do not directly address the issue of increased intracranial pressure: Maintaining a well-lit room: While a well-lit room can be important for patient safety and comfort, it doesn't specifically impact intracranial pressure. Frequently changing the position of the patient: Frequent position changes might be beneficial for preventing pressure ulcers and maintaining patient comfort, but they don't directly address intracranial pressure. Elevating the foot end of the patient: Elevating the foot end of the patient's bed can be used for other purposes, such as improving blood circulation in certain cases, but it doesn't have a significant effect on intracranial pressure.
14. A nurse caring a patient who is on pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy should assess for:
a. Weight gain
b. Orthostatic hypotension
c. Bradycardia
d. GIT irritation
Answer: a. Weight gain
Description:When caring for a patient who is on pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (PERT), the nurse should assess for weight gain. PERT is often prescribed for individuals with pancreatic insufficiency, such as in cases of chronic pancreatitis or cystic fibrosis. These patients have difficulty digesting and absorbing nutrients from their food due to inadequate pancreatic enzyme production. Enzyme replacement helps improve nutrient absorption, which can lead to weight gain and improved nutritional status. The other options (orthostatic hypotension, bradycardia, and gastrointestinal irritation) are not directly related to the effects of pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy. Weight gain is a more relevant indicator of successful therapy in this context.
15. Best method to make sure the functionality of intercostal drainage tube is to observe for:
a. Continuous bubbling in water sealed bottle
b. Oscillation of water column in drainage bottle
c. Continuous bubbling from suction tube
d. All of the above.
Answer: b. Oscillation of water column in drainage bottle
Description:The best method to make sure the functionality of an intercostal drainage tube is to observe for oscillation of the water column in the drainage bottle, as described in option b. An intercostal drainage tube, also known as a chest tube, is often inserted into the pleural space to drain air, fluid, or blood from the chest cavity. When the lung re-expands and the drainage tube is functioning properly, you should see oscillation or movement of the water column in the water-sealed drainage bottle. This movement occurs due to the changes in intrapleural pressure during the respiratory cycle. The other options (continuous bubbling in water-sealed bottle and continuous bubbling from suction tube) are not indicative of proper functionality of the drainage tube. Continuous bubbling might indicate a leak or an issue with the system.
16. A nurse stands to protect the needs and wishes of the patient. What role does she exhibit?
a. Caregiver
b. Counselor
c. Client advocate
d. Nurse manager
Answer: c. Client advocate
Description:The role exhibited by a nurse who stands to protect the needs and wishes of the patient is client advocate, as mentioned in option c. A nurse's role as a client advocate involves advocating for the patient's rights, preferences, and well-being. This can include ensuring that the patient's wishes are respected, their concerns are addressed, and their best interests are taken into consideration in their healthcare decisions and treatments. Advocacy is a crucial aspect of nursing that involves supporting and representing the patient's voice within the healthcare system. The other options (caregiver, counselor, nurse manager) represent different roles within nursing but do not specifically address the concept of advocating for the patient's needs and wishes.
17. A nurse in the critical care unit explains to the client and family regarding the future treatment and surgery options. Here nurse is performing the role of:
a. Advocate
b. Caregiver
c. Researcher
d. Leader
Answer: a. Advocate
Description:In the scenario described, where a nurse is explaining future treatment and surgery options to the client and their family, the nurse is performing the role of an advocate, as mentioned in option a. Nurse advocacy involves ensuring that patients and their families have the necessary information and understanding to make informed decisions about their healthcare. Advocacy also includes representing the patient's wishes and preferences to the healthcare team and supporting the patient's rights throughout their medical journey. This role helps empower patients and their families to actively participate in their care planning and decision-making. The other options (caregiver, researcher, leader) represent different roles within nursing, but in this context, advocating for the patient's understanding and involvement in treatment decisions is the most relevant role.
18. Which of the following statements best describe ‘knowing the patient.’
a. Anticipating the patient personal preferences of shift nurse.
b. Identifying the patient preference on physician.
c. Collecting task-oriented information during assessment.
d. Establishing an understanding of a specific patient.
Answer: d. Establishing an understanding of a specific patient.
Description:Knowing the patient involves developing a comprehensive understanding of the individual patient, including their medical history, preferences, values, cultural background, and unique needs. It goes beyond collecting task-oriented information and involves forming a holistic view of the patient as a person. This understanding helps healthcare professionals provide patient-centered care and make informed decisions that align with the patient's preferences and goals.
19. Holistic care refers to:
a. Disease, spirit, and environment interaction.
b. Emotions of the patients
c. Mind-body-spirit of patient and their families
d. Muscles and neurological disorders.
Answer: c. Mind-body-spirit of patient and their families
Description:Holistic care refers to an approach that considers not only the physical health of the patient but also their mental, emotional, and spiritual well-being. It recognizes that these aspects are interconnected and can impact a person's overall health. Holistic care aims to address the whole person and their unique needs, which can include not only the patient but also their family and support system. This approach emphasizes the importance of treating the patient as a whole and promoting their overall well-being.
20. All of the following are the goals of restraining the patients; EXCEPT:
a. To prevent injuries due to fall
b. To prevent self-directed violence
c. To prevent pressure ulcer
d. To impose control on behavior.
Answer: c. To prevent pressure ulcer
Description:The goals of restraining patients are to: Prevent injuries due to falls Prevent self-directed violence Impose control on behavior Facilitate treatment Protect the patient from self-harm Pressure ulcers are caused by prolonged pressure on the skin, which can lead to tissue damage. Restraints do not cause pressure ulcers, so they are not a goal of restraining patients. The other options are all valid goals of restraining patients. For example, if a patient is at risk of falling, restraints can be used to prevent them from getting hurt. If a patient is at risk of self-harm, restraints can be used to prevent them from harming themselves. And if a patient is at risk of harming others, restraints can be used to protect others from harm. It is important to note that restraints should only be used as a last resort. There are many other interventions that can be used to manage patient safety and behavior. Restraints should only be used when other interventions have been unsuccessful or are not feasible.
21. A method used to assist individuals with disability or chronic illness to attain and maintain maximum function:
a. Restorative care
b. Rehabilitation
c. Reconstruction
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:Rehabilitation is a broad term that encompasses all of the methods used to assist individuals with disability or chronic illness to attain and maintain maximum function. This includes restorative care, which is aimed at improving or restoring the function of a specific body part or system. Rehabilitation also includes habilitation, which is aimed at helping individuals who have never been able to function independently to learn how to do so. Reconstruction is a more specific term that refers to the surgical repair of a body part or system. Reconstruction is often used in conjunction with rehabilitation, but it is not always necessary.
22. All are retention enema; EXCEPT:
a. Stimulant enema
b. Nutrient enema
c. Oil enema
d. Emollient enema
Answer: c. Oil enema
Description:Retention enemas are designed to be held in the rectum for an extended period of time. Oil enemas are not retention enemas because they are expelled quickly.
23. The maximum height at which of the enema should be held while giving it is:
a. 66 cm
b. 45 cm
c. 37 cm
d. 30 cm
Answer: b. 45 cm
Description:The enema bag should be held no higher than 45 cm above the patient's hips to prevent pain and discomfort.
24. Which of the following is the most common source of client injury?
a. Medication error and falls
b. Transfer from bed
c. Bedsore
d. Needle stick injury
Answer: a. Medication error and falls
Description:Medication errors and falls are the two most common sources of client injury in healthcare settings. According to the National Patient Safety Foundation, medication errors account for an estimated 1.5 million injuries and 44,000 deaths each year in the United States. Falls are the leading cause of injury-related death in older adults, and they are also a major cause of hospitalization and disability. Bedsores, also known as pressure ulcers, are another common source of client injury. Bedsores can develop when pressure is applied to the skin for a prolonged period of time, cutting off the blood supply to the area. This can lead to tissue death and infection. Needle stick injuries are a less common but still serious source of client injury. Needle stick injuries can transmit bloodborne pathogens such as HIV and hepatitis B and C. It is important to take steps to prevent all of these types of injuries. For medication errors, this includes following proper procedures for prescribing, dispensing, and administering medications. For falls, this includes providing fall prevention interventions such as bed alarms and gait belts. For bedsores, this includes regular skin assessments and repositioning of patients. And for needle stick injuries, this includes using safety needles and sharps containers.
25. If a client complains of abdominal cramps while administering enema, the nurse should:
a. Continue to administer enema
b. Slow the rate of enema
c. Stop giving enema
d. Administer analgesic
Answer: c. Stop giving enema
Description:Abdominal cramps are a common side effect of enemas. They are caused by the stretching of the colon as the enema fluid is instilled. If a client complains of abdominal cramps, the nurse should stop giving the enema immediately. Continuing to give the enema could make the cramps worse. The nurse should also assess the client for other signs of discomfort, such as nausea or vomiting. If the client is experiencing any other discomfort, the nurse should stop the enema and notify the doctor. In some cases, the nurse may be able to restart the enema after a short break. However, if the client continues to experience abdominal cramps, the enema should not be restarted.
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