NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 195
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1. Iron is absorbed actively in the:
a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Terminal ileum
d. Proximal ileum
Answer: b. Duodenum
Description:Iron absorption primarily occurs in the duodenum, which is the first part of the small intestine. In the duodenum, iron is actively absorbed by the body. The stomach is not the primary site for iron absorption, and while some iron may be absorbed in the ileum, the duodenum is the primary location for this process.
2. Which of the following drug is a proton pump inhibitor?
a. Ranitidine
b. Cimetidine
c. Cetirizine
d. Omeprazole
Answer: d. Omeprazole
Description:Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. PPIs work by inhibiting the action of proton pumps in the stomach lining, thereby decreasing the amount of acid produced. This helps in the treatment of conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), peptic ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Ranitidine (option a) and Cimetidine (option b) are H2 receptor antagonists, also known as H2 blockers, which reduce stomach acid production through a different mechanism. Cetirizine (option c) is an antihistamine used for allergy relief and is not related to acid suppression or the treatment of acid-related gastrointestinal conditions.
3. Sucralfate is useful in the treatment of:
a. Fluid deficit
b. Fluid overload
c. Peptic ulcer
d. Peritonitis
Answer: c. Peptic ulcer
Description:Sucralfate is a medication used in the treatment of peptic ulcers and other conditions related to the gastrointestinal tract. It works by forming a protective coating over the ulcer or irritated areas in the stomach or duodenum, providing a barrier against stomach acid, digestive enzymes, and other irritants. This protective barrier allows the ulcer to heal and helps relieve symptoms associated with peptic ulcers. It is not used to treat fluid deficit, fluid overload, or peritonitis.
4. Vitamin D causes:
a. ↑ Intestinal absorption of calcium
b. ↓ Intestinal absorption of calcium
c. ↓ Intestinal absorption of phosphate
d. ↓ Renal absorption of calcium
Answer: a. ↑ Intestinal absorption of calcium
Description:Vitamin D plays a crucial role in increasing the intestinal absorption of calcium. It helps regulate calcium homeostasis in the body by promoting the absorption of dietary calcium from the intestines, which is important for maintaining proper calcium levels in the bloodstream. Vitamin D also has other important functions, such as promoting bone health and aiding in the maintenance of phosphate levels, but it primarily enhances calcium absorption in the intestines.
5. All are uses of antihistaminic; EXCEPT:
a. Urticaria
b. Motion sickness
c. Pruritus
d. Glaucoma
Answer: d. Glaucoma
Description:Antihistamines are primarily used to treat conditions related to allergies and histamine-mediated symptoms. They are commonly used for the following purposes: a. Urticaria: Antihistamines can help relieve itching and hives associated with urticaria (hives). b. Motion sickness: Some antihistamines have antiemetic (anti-nausea) properties and can be used to prevent motion sickness. c. Pruritus: Antihistamines are often used to relieve itching (pruritus) caused by allergic reactions, insect bites, or various skin conditions. However, antihistamines are not typically used to treat glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and the primary treatment for glaucoma involves medications specifically designed to lower intraocular pressure, surgical interventions, or other therapies aimed at managing the condition. Antihistamines do not address the underlying causes or symptoms of glaucoma.
6. Antihistaminic used in motion sickness is:
a. Cetirizine
b. Meclizine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Fexofenadine
Answer: c. Diphenhydramine
Description:Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that is commonly used to prevent and treat motion sickness. It has antiemetic (anti-nausea) properties and can help alleviate symptoms of motion sickness, such as nausea and vomiting. Meclizine is another antihistamine often used for motion sickness. Cetirizine and fexofenadine are more commonly used for allergy relief and are not typically used to treat motion sickness.
7. Anti-emetics with least CNS side effect is:
a. Metoclopramide
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Prochlorperazine
d. Ondansetron
Answer: d. Ondansetron
Description:Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that is often used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting, particularly in chemotherapy-induced and post-operative situations. It is known for having minimal CNS side effects compared to some other anti-emetic medications, such as metoclopramide (option a), chlorpromazine (option b), and prochlorperazine (option c), which can have more pronounced CNS side effects like sedation and extrapyramidal symptoms.
8. The action of the drug pseudoephedrine is:
a. Antimanic
b. Decongestant
c. Antihistamine
d. Antiemetic
Answer: b. Decongestant
Description:Pseudoephedrine is a sympathomimetic drug which acts as a stimulant and decongestant. It is used to treat nasal and sinus congestion.
9. Which of the following drug is not available as metered dose inhaler (MDI)
a. Albuterol
b. Salbutamol
c. Aminophylline
d. Terbutaline
Answer: c. Aminophylline
Description:Aminophylline is not typically available as a metered dose inhaler (MDI). It is more commonly administered as an oral medication or through intravenous (IV) infusion. In contrast, Albuterol (or Salbutamol), and Terbutaline are available in MDI forms and are frequently used for the treatment of respiratory conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). These MDIs deliver the medication directly into the lungs for quick relief of bronchoconstriction.
10. Most common dose related side effects of salbutamol is:
a. Nervousness
b. Palpitations
c. Restlessness
d. Tremors
Answer: d. Tremors
Description:Tremors or shaking of the hands and sometimes other parts of the body are a known side effect of beta-2 agonist medications like salbutamol. While other side effects like nervousness (option a), palpitations (option b), and restlessness (option c) can also occur, tremors are particularly associated with the use of this medication, especially when it is used at higher doses or too frequently. It's essential to use salbutamol as prescribed by a healthcare provider to minimize the risk of these side effects.
11. Which of the following is bronchodilator?
a. Corticosteroids
b. Salmeterol
c. Ketotifen
d. Sodium cromoglycate
Answer: b. Salmeterol
Description:Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist bronchodilator. It is used to relax and widen the airways in the lungs, making it easier to breathe, and is commonly used for the treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The other options are not bronchodilators: a. Corticosteroids are anti-inflammatory medications that reduce airway inflammation. c. Ketotifen is an antihistamine and mast cell stabilizer used for allergy relief. d. Sodium cromoglycate is a mast cell stabilizer that helps prevent the release of substances that cause allergic reactions and inflammation but does not have direct bronchodilator properties.
12. Which of the following drug is an example of mucolytics
a. Bromhexine
b. Codeine phosphate
c. Levocetirizine
d. Pheniramine maleate
Answer: a. Bromhexine
Description:Bromhexine is a mucolytic medication commonly used to help thin and loosen mucus in the airways, making it easier to cough up and clear the respiratory passages. It is often used to manage conditions such as bronchitis and other respiratory illnesses where the removal of thick mucus is beneficial. The other options (b. Codeine phosphate, c. Levocetirizine, and d. Pheniramine maleate) are not mucolytics. Codeine phosphate is an opioid medication used for pain relief and cough suppression, while Levocetirizine and Pheniramine maleate are antihistamines used for allergy relief.
13. The administration of histamine in man can produce:
a. Bronchodilation
b. Vasodilation
c. Negative chronotropic action
d. Reduced secretion of intrinsic factors.
Answer: b. Vasodilation
Description:Histamine is known to cause vasodilation, which is the widening of blood vessels. This can result in increased blood flow and a drop in blood pressure. Histamine's vasodilatory effects are one of the reasons it is associated with allergic reactions and the characteristic symptoms of redness, swelling, and itching. It can also lead to symptoms such as a runny nose and increased vascular permeability, contributing to allergy symptoms. Histamine does not typically cause bronchodilation (option a), negative chronotropic action (option c), or reduced secretion of intrinsic factors (option d).
14. Digoxin is not given when heart rate is:
a. Below 50
b. Below 60
c. Above 70
d. Above 80
Answer: b. Below 60
Description:Digoxin should not be given if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute because digoxin further reduces the heart rate and it could be dangerous.
15. Dopamine is preferred in the management of shock because it:
a. Decrease cardiac output
b. Has prolonged action
c. Has peripheral vasoconstriction effect
d. Has renal vasodilatory effect.
Answer: d. Has renal vasodilatory effect.
Description:Dopamine is a medication often used in the management of shock because it can increase blood flow to the kidneys by dilating the renal blood vessels (renal vasodilatory effect). This can be beneficial in cases of shock where maintaining kidney perfusion is crucial to support kidney function and overall fluid balance. The other options mentioned are not accurate: a. Dopamine can increase cardiac output, not decrease it. b. Dopamine is known for its relatively short duration of action, especially when administered as an infusion. c. Dopamine has peripheral vasodilatory effects, not vasoconstriction.
16. Which of the following drugs should be first administration in a patient admitted with a diagnosis of acute myocardia infarction.
a. ACE inhibitor
b. Aspirin
c. Calcium channel blocker
d. Stattin
Answer: b. Aspirin
Description:Aspirin is a standard and critical treatment for acute myocardial infarction. It is given to reduce the risk of further clot formation in the coronary arteries, which can help limit the extent of the heart attack. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which is crucial in preventing the progression of the clot that may have caused the heart attack. While other medications like ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, and statins may be part of the treatment plan for a heart attack patient, aspirin is the immediate priority for its antiplatelet effects to minimize ongoing damage to the heart muscle. These other medications may be prescribed later in the treatment and recovery process, depending on the individual patient's condition and medical management plan.
17. Which electrolyte imbalance may predispose the patient with digitalis toxicity?
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypermagnesemia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypernatremia
Answer: c. Hypokalemia
Description:Hypokalemia, which is a lower-than-normal level of potassium in the blood, can increase the risk of digitalis (digoxin) toxicity. Digitalis medications, like digoxin, are used to treat certain heart conditions, but they can be less effective and more toxic in the presence of low potassium levels. Therefore, monitoring and maintaining appropriate potassium levels are essential when a patient is on digitalis therapy to reduce the risk of toxicity.
18. Calcium channel blockers which are used in the treatment of hypertension include:
a. Prazosin
b. Enalapril
c. Captopril
d. Nifedipine
Answer: d. Nifedipine
Description:Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly prescribed to lower blood pressure in individuals with hypertension. It works by relaxing the blood vessels, which reduces the resistance to blood flow and results in lower blood pressure. The other options (a. Prazosin, b. Enalapril, c. Captopril) are not calcium channel blockers. Prazosin is an alpha-blocker, while Enalapril and Captopril are ACE inhibitors, all of which have different mechanisms of action for treating hypertension.
19. Which of the following receptors is activated by low doses of dopamine:
a. Dopaminergic
b. Beta 1
c. Beta 2
d. Alpha
Answer: a. Dopaminergic
Description:Dopaminergic receptors are a specific class of receptors that respond to dopamine. At low doses, dopamine primarily stimulates dopaminergic receptors, which have various effects depending on the location in the body. Activation of dopaminergic receptors can have a vasodilatory effect in certain vascular beds, including the renal and mesenteric arteries, which can increase blood flow to these areas. Higher doses of dopamine can also stimulate other receptors, such as beta-1 (b. Beta 1) and alpha (d. Alpha) adrenergic receptors, depending on the dose and context of use.
20. The main drug of choice for Heart failure is:
a. Decadron
b. Digoxin
c. Morphine
d. Efcorlin
Answer: b. Digoxin
Description:Digoxin is a medication commonly used in the management of heart failure. It helps improve the heart's pumping ability and can help control heart failure symptoms. However, it's important to note that the treatment of heart failure often involves a combination of medications, and the specific drugs prescribed may vary depending on the individual patient's condition and needs. Other medications commonly used for heart failure include ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, diuretics, and more, and the choice of medication will be determined by the healthcare provider based on the patient's clinical presentation and underlying factors.
21. The procedure which involves giving a synchronized counter shock to a convert an undesirable rhythm to stable rhythm is:
a. Defibrillation
b. Cardiac stimulator
c. Pacemaker
d. Cardioversion
Answer: d. Cardioversion
Description:Cardioversion is a medical procedure that is commonly used to convert abnormal heart rhythms, such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter, back to a normal and stable rhythm. It is typically synchronized with the patient's cardiac cycle to deliver the shock at the right time, thus restoring a regular heart rhythm. The other options mentioned are different procedures or devices: a. Defibrillation is used to treat life-threatening ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia by delivering an unsynchronized high-energy shock to reset the heart's electrical activity. b. A cardiac stimulator typically refers to a pacemaker, which is a device used to regulate and control the heart's rhythm, but it does not involve synchronized counter shocks. c. A pacemaker is a medical device that is implanted to manage and regulate heart rhythms, but it doesn't deliver synchronized counter shocks like cardioversion.
22. Identify the calcium channel blocker from the following:
a. Nifedipine
b. Atenolol
c. Lasix
d. Mannitol
Answer: a. Nifedipine
Description:Nifedipine is a medication commonly used as a calcium channel blocker to treat conditions like hypertension (high blood pressure) and angina. It works by relaxing the blood vessels, reducing blood pressure, and improving blood flow to the heart. The other options (b. Atenolol, c. Lasix, d. Mannitol) are not calcium channel blockers. Atenolol is a beta-blocker, Lasix is a diuretic, and Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic.
23. Which among the following medicines is used for the pharmacologic closure of patient ductus arteriosus?
a. Methoxamine
b. Ecosprin
c. Indomethacin
d. Prostaglandin
Answer: c. Indomethacin
Description:Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can be used to close a patent ductus arteriosus in certain cases, particularly in premature infants. The PDA is a blood vessel that normally closes shortly after birth but may remain open in premature babies. Indomethacin can help constrict the PDA and promote closure. The other options (a. Methoxamine, b. Ecosprin, d. Prostaglandin) do not have the primary effect of closing a patent ductus arteriosus, and in fact, prostaglandin is sometimes used to keep the PDA open in specific medical situations.
24. A patient can become toxic on a normal dose of digitals when……….is present.
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypertension
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypotension
Answer: c. Hypokalemia
Description:Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the blood, can increase the risk of digitalis toxicity. Low potassium levels can enhance the effects of digitalis on the heart, leading to an increased risk of arrhythmias and toxicity even at normal therapeutic doses of the medication. Therefore, it's crucial to monitor and maintain appropriate potassium levels in patients taking digitalis.
25. Most common effect of inhalational beclomethasone is:
a. Adrenal suppression
b. Oropharyngeal candidiasis
c. Bronchoconstriction
d. Hepatitis
Answer: b. Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Description:Oropharyngeal candidiasis, also known as oral thrush, is a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids like beclomethasone. This occurs because the corticosteroid can suppress the immune response in the throat and mouth, leading to the overgrowth of the fungus Candida, which causes oral thrush. It is essential for individuals using inhaled corticosteroids to rinse their mouth and gargle with water after each use to help prevent this side effect. Adrenal suppression (option a), bronchoconstriction (option c), and hepatitis (option d) are not typical side effects of inhaled beclomethasone.
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