NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 197
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1. All of the following adverse effects are associated with the use of labetalol; EXCEPT:
a. Orthostatic hypotension.
b Bronchospasm
c. Priapism
d. Urinary retention
Answer: c. Priapism
Description:Priapism is not typically associated with labetalol use. Priapism is a prolonged and painful erection of the penis that can be caused by other factors but is not a common side effect of labetalol.
2. Which of the following increases the risk of digoxin induced arrhythmias?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypermagnesemia
d. Hypernatremia
Answer: b. Hypercalcemia
Description:Increased intracellular calcium seen with digitals use may lead to premature contractions of the myocytes (cardiac muscle cells). Repolarization time for atria and ventricles are reduced. This decreased refractory period leads to increased automaticity and the induction or arrhythmias.
3. Which of the following drug is effective in acute termination of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
a. Hydroxyzine
b. Adenosine
c. Verapamil
d. Both a and b
Answer: d. Both a and b
Description:a. Adenosine is commonly used in emergency settings to treat SVT. It works by briefly slowing down the electrical conduction in the heart, allowing the normal rhythm to reestablish itself. b. Verapamil is another medication that can be used to terminate SVT. It works by slowing down the heart rate and can be effective in certain cases of SVT.
4. Which of the following is the class II antiarrhythmic agents?
a. Diltiazem
b. Amiodarone
c. Lidocaine
d. Esmolol
Answer: d. Esmolol
Description:Class II antiarrhythmic agents are a group of medications used to treat abnormal heart rhythms. Esmolol is one of these drugs. It belongs to the beta-blocker class and works by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart. This helps to slow down the heart rate and reduce the force of contractions, making it useful in managing certain arrhythmias.
5. Which of the following is the class IV antiarrhythmic agent?
a. Verapamil
b. Magnesium sulfate
c. Amiodarone
d. Adenosine
Answer: a. Verapamil
Description:Class IV antiarrhythmic agents are a group of medications used to treat abnormal heart rhythms. Verapamil is one of these drugs, and it belongs to the calcium channel blocker class. It works by blocking calcium channels in the heart's muscle cells, which helps to slow down the heart rate and reduce the force of contractions. This can be effective in managing certain arrhythmias.
6. Class III antiarrhythmic agents act as:
a. Sodium channel blockers
b. Beta-adrenoreceptor blockers
c. Potassium channel blockers
d. Calcium channel blockers.
Answer: c. Potassium channel blockers
Description:Heparin is commonly used during hemodialysis procedures to prevent blood clotting in the dialysis machine and lines. It works as an anticoagulant, helping to keep the blood flowing smoothly through the dialysis circuit to ensure effective treatment without clotting issues.
7. Which of the following drug is used to prevent blood clotting during hemodialysis procedure?
a. Aspirin
b. Heparin
c. Protamine sulfate
d. Coumadin
Answer: b. Heparin
Description:Anticoagulation in routine hemodialysis consists of a standard dose of heparin given as a bolus at the start of the dialysis treatment with a mid treatment dose to maintain suitable anticoagulation.
8. Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by blocking the synthesis?
a. RBC’s
b. Vitamin E
c. Hemoglobin
d. Vitamin K
Answer: d. Vitamin K
Description:Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by blocking the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. Vitamin K is essential for the production of these clotting factors, and when warfarin inhibits its action, it leads to a decreased ability of the blood to form clots. This is why warfarin is used to prevent and treat conditions where blood clotting needs to be controlled, such as deep vein thrombosis and atrial fibrillation.
9. Which of the following is not direct acting anti-platelet agent?
a. Aspirin
b. Clopidogrel
c. Atorvastatin
d. Ticlopidine
Answer: c. Atorvastatin
Description:Aspirin, Clopidogrel, and Ticlopidine are all direct-acting antiplatelet agents that work to prevent blood clot formation by affecting platelet function. However, Atorvastatin is not an antiplatelet agent; it is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events through a different mechanism of action.
10. Heparin is the most widely used antithrombotic agent. It acts by activating:
a. Plasmin
b. Antithrombin III
c. Fibrinolysin
d. Factor X
Answer: b. Antithrombin III
Description:Heparin acts by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III (also known as antithrombin), a natural anticoagulant protein in the blood. Antithrombin III inhibits several clotting factors, including thrombin and factor X. Heparin helps antithrombin III work more effectively, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots.
11. Which of the following is vitamin K dependent clotting factors?
a. Factor VII
b. Factor I
c. Factor XI
d. Factor XII
Answer: a. Factor VII
Description:Factor VII is one of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the blood. These factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X, require vitamin K for their synthesis in the liver. Vitamin K is essential for the production of these clotting factors, and any deficiency in vitamin K can lead to bleeding disorders.
12. Which of the following is not an oral anticoagulant?
a. Warfarin
b. Dicumarol
c. Phenindione
d. Heparin
Answer: d. Heparin
Description:Heparin is not an oral anticoagulant; it is typically administered as an injectable medication, either intravenously or subcutaneously. In contrast, options (a) Warfarin, (b) Dicumarol, and (c) Phenindione are oral anticoagulants that are taken by mouth.
13. Aspirin is contraindicated in a patient who in on treatment with?
a. Prednisolone
b. Warfarin
c. Theophylline
d. Oral contraceptives.
Answer: b. Warfarin
Description:Aspirin and Warfarin both have anticoagulant properties, and using them together can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is generally contraindicated to use aspirin in a patient who is already on treatment with Warfarin, unless specifically prescribed by a healthcare professional and carefully monitored. The other options (a) Prednisolone, (c) Theophylline, and (d) Oral contraceptives are not typically contraindicated with aspirin, although there may be specific situations where caution is required, and a healthcare provider's guidance is needed.
14. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?
a. Bleeding time
b. Platelet count
c. Activated PTT
d. Clotting time
Answer: c. Activated PTT
Description:When a client is on heparin therapy, monitoring the activated PTT is crucial. Activated PTT measures the time it takes for the blood to clot, and it is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing excessive clot formation. The goal is to maintain the activated PTT within a therapeutic range to ensure that the client is receiving an appropriate dose of heparin to prevent or treat deep vein thrombosis while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring bleeding time, platelet count, and clotting time are also important but are not as specific for assessing heparin's therapeutic effects as activated PTT.
15. Which of the following drug is used to prevent blood clotting during hemodialysis?
a. Coumarin
b. Heparin
c. Protamine sulfate
d. Warfarin
Answer: b. Heparin
Description:Heparin is commonly used during hemodialysis procedures to prevent blood clotting in the dialysis machine and lines. It works as an anticoagulant, helping to keep the blood flowing smoothly through the dialysis circuit to ensure effective treatment without clotting issues. Coumarin and Warfarin are both anticoagulants but are not typically used in hemodialysis. Protamine sulfate is used as an antidote to reverse the effects of heparin if necessary.
16. Immune suppressive therapy is effective in patient with myasthenia gravis because it:
a. Promotes the removal of antibodies
b. Inhibits the breakdown of acetylcholine at the NMJ
c. Decreases the production of autoantibodies that attack the acetylcholine
d. Stimulates the production of Ach at the synoptic cleft
Answer: c. Decreases the production of autoantibodies that attack the acetylcholine
Description:Hydrocortisone, also known as cortisol, is a corticosteroid that is produced naturally by the adrenal glands in the body. It plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including metabolism, immune response regulation, and the body's response to stress. The other options listed (Dexamethasone, Prednisone, and Methylprednisolone) are synthetic corticosteroids that are used as medications to treat various medical conditions, including inflammatory and autoimmune disorders.
17. Which of the following corticosteroid is produced naturally by the body?
a. Prednisone
b. Hydrocortisone
c. Methylprednisolone.
d. Dexamethasone
Answer: b. Hydrocortisone
Description:Glucocorticoids are primarily secreted by the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex, and their secretion is primarily regulated by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis, not the renin-angiotensin system. The renin-angiotensin system is involved in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance, not the secretion of glucocorticoids. The other statements are generally true: a. Glucocorticoids are secreted by the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. c. Glucocorticoids have anti-inflammatory and antiallergic properties, which make them useful in treating various inflammatory and allergic conditions. d. They can help reduce pain, especially when pain is related to inflammation or immune responses.
18. All of the following are true about Glucocorticoids; EXCEPT:
a. They are anti-inflammatory and antiallergic.
b. Secretions are under the control of renin-angiotensin system
c. They reduce pain.
d. Glucocorticoids are secreted by zona fasciculata of cortex
Answer: b. Secretions are under the control of renin-angiotensin system
Description:Secretion of glucocorticoids are under the control of ACTH of adenohypophysis. Mineralocorticoids secretion is under the control of renin-angiotensin system. All other statements regarding glucocorticoids are true.
19. All of the following are inhaled corticosteroids; EXCEPT:
a. Beclomethasone
b. Fluticasone
c. Beclomethasone
d. Methylprednisolone.
Answer: d. Methylprednisolone.
Description:Methylprednisolone is not typically used as an inhaled corticosteroid. It is available in various forms, including oral and injectable, and is used for different medical purposes, such as reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system. Inhaled corticosteroids used to treat respiratory conditions like asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include Beclomethasone, Budesonide, and Fluticasone.
20. Which of the following is the side effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy?
a. Exogenous Cushing’s syndrome
b. SIADH
c. Endogenous Cushing’s syndrome
d. Diabetes insipidus.
Answer: a. Exogenous Cushing’s syndrome
Description:Long-term corticosteroid therapy can lead to the development of exogenous Cushing's syndrome, which is characterized by a variety of symptoms and complications due to prolonged exposure to high levels of corticosteroid medications. These symptoms may include weight gain, hypertension, diabetes, muscle weakness, and mood changes, among others. Endogenous Cushing's syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by the body's overproduction of cortisol (a type of corticosteroid) and is not related to the use of corticosteroid medications. SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion) and diabetes insipidus are unrelated conditions that involve disturbances in water balance and are not typically associated with long-term corticosteroid therapy.
21. Which of the following drugs has reducing effect on proteinuria in a normotensive diabetic patient?
a. Osmotic diuretics.
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Loop diuretics
d. Beta blockers
Answer: b. ACE inhibitors
Description:ACE inhibitors, such as enalapril or lisinopril, have been shown to have a reducing effect on proteinuria (the presence of excess protein in the urine) in normotensive diabetic patients. They are commonly used in the management of diabetic nephropathy, a kidney condition associated with diabetes, to help protect the kidneys and reduce protein loss in the urine. Beta blockers, loop diuretics, and osmotic diuretics are not typically used for this purpose in normotensive diabetic patients.
22. Which of the following action is correct is regarded to insulin administration?-
a. Inject insulin at an angle of 45° into deltoid muscle
b. Take insulin after the first meal of the day
c. Draw up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe.
d. Shake the insulin vial vigorously before with drawing medication.
Answer: c. Draw up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe.
Description:When mixing two types of insulin in one syringe, it is important to draw up the clear (short-acting) insulin first before drawing the cloudy (long-acting) insulin. This helps prevent contamination of the clear insulin with any residual cloudy insulin that may be left in the syringe, ensuring accurate dosing and effectiveness of both types of insulin. The other options (a, b, and d) are not correct and could lead to incorrect insulin administration or potential harm.
23. An insulin drip is initiated for patient with 40 U of insulin in 100 mL of normal saline solution. The IV is being infused via an infusion pump and the pump is currently set at 20 mL/h. How many units of insulin is infused each hour?
a. 0.4 U
b. 8 U
c. 0.8 U
d. 4 U
Answer: b. 8 U
Description:• 100 mL of normal saline contains = 40 U of insulin • 1 mL normal saline contains = 40/100 = 0.4 U • 20 mL normal saline contains 0.4x20 = 8U
24. A patient is prescribed prednisone once a day. Which of the following instruction regarding pensions administration should be included in the discharge teaching?
a. Take the medication before bed time
b. Take the medication in the evening.
c. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast
d. Take the medication between two meals
Answer: c. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast
Description:Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication, and it is often recommended to be taken in the morning with breakfast. This is because corticosteroids can sometimes cause insomnia or sleep disturbances if taken later in the day. Additionally, taking it with food can help reduce the risk of stomach upset, which is a potential side effect of the medication. It's important to follow the specific instructions provided by the healthcare provider or pharmacist, but taking it in the morning with breakfast is a common recommendation.
25. Which of the following controls the section of adrenocortical steroids?
a. Angiotensin
b. ACTH
c. Renin
d. Vasopressin
Answer: b. ACTH
Description:ACTH, which is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, controls the secretion of adrenocortical steroids, including cortisol, from the adrenal cortex. ACTH stimulates the adrenal glands to release these hormones in response to various stressors and as part of the body's natural regulatory mechanisms.
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