NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 199
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1. Thyroxine is synthesized from:
a. Cysteine
b. Arginine
c. Tyrosine
d. Alanine
Answer: c. Tyrosine
Description:Thyroxine, also known as T4 (thyroxine), is synthesized from the amino acid tyrosine. The process of thyroid hormone synthesis involves the incorporation of iodine atoms into tyrosine molecules within the thyroid gland. This process ultimately leads to the formation of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which are important hormones for regulating metabolism and various physiological processes in the body. So, the correct answer is option c: Tyrosine.
2. L-Thyroxine is used in:
a. Thyroid storm
b. Cretinism
c. Endemic goiter
d. Grave’s disease.
Answer: b. Cretinism
Description:a. Thyroid storm: Levothyroxine may be used in combination with other treatments to manage thyroid storm, a life-threatening condition associated with severe hyperthyroidism. c. Endemic goiter: In some cases, levothyroxine may be prescribed to manage goiter, especially when it is associated with hypothyroidism. d. Grave's disease: While levothyroxine is not typically the first-line treatment for Grave's disease (an autoimmune disorder causing hyperthyroidism), it may be used in certain situations to help stabilize thyroid hormone levels. So, while option b (Cretinism) is a primary indication for L-Thyroxine, it can also be used in other thyroid-related conditions, as mentioned above.
3. Which is fastest calcium lowering agents?
a. Calcitonin
b. Plicamycin
c. Etidronate
d. Zoledronate
Answer: a. Calcitonin
Description:Calcitonin is a hormone that can rapidly lower blood calcium levels by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue and releasing calcium into the bloodstream. It works relatively quickly and can be used in situations where rapid calcium reduction is needed, such as in hypercalcemia (elevated blood calcium levels) or certain medical emergencies. The other options mentioned (b. Plicamycin, c. Etidronate, and d. Zoledronate) also have roles in managing high calcium levels but may have different mechanisms of action and varying speeds of onset compared to calcitonin.
4. Estrogen therapy is contraindicated in patient with:
a. Pelvic inflammatory disease
b. Dysmenorrhea
c. Cervical cancer
d. Liver disease
Answer: d. Liver disease
Description:Estrogen therapy can have metabolic effects on the liver, and individuals with existing liver disease or a history of liver problems may be at increased risk of adverse effects. Therefore, in such cases, estrogen therapy should be avoided or used with caution under the supervision of a healthcare provider. The other options (a. Pelvic inflammatory disease, b. Dysmenorrhea, and c. Cervical cancer) do not typically serve as contraindications for estrogen therapy, although individual patient factors and medical history should always be considered when making treatment decisions.
5. Which of the following drug induces ovulation?
a. Clomiphene citrate
b. Mifepristone
c. Misoprostol
d. Ritodrine
Answer: a. Clomiphene citrate
Description:Clomiphene citrate is a medication commonly used to induce ovulation in women who have difficulty ovulating on their own. It works by stimulating the release of hormones in the brain that, in turn, stimulate the ovaries to release eggs. The other options (b. Mifepristone, c. Misoprostol, and d. Ritodrine) have different mechanisms of action and are not used to induce ovulation. Mifepristone is used for medical abortion, misoprostol is used for various purposes including medical abortion and cervical ripening, and ritodrine is used to relax the uterus in preterm labor.
6. Mifepristone is an example of:
a. Prostaglandin
b. Vasodilator
c. Estrogen antagonist
d. Progesterone antagonist.
Answer: d. Progesterone antagonist.
Description:Mifepristone, also known as RU-486, is a medication that acts as a progesterone receptor antagonist. It is used for medical abortion in combination with another medication called misoprostol. By blocking the effects of progesterone, mifepristone can induce the shedding of the uterine lining and terminate a pregnancy.
7. Corticosteroid which is given by inhalation route is:
a. Prednisolone
b. Beclomethasone
c. Dexamethasone
d. Hypotension
Answer: b. Beclomethasone
Description:Beclomethasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that is commonly used to reduce inflammation in the airways and help control asthma symptoms. Inhaled corticosteroids are an important part of asthma management because they can help prevent and reduce airway inflammation, making it easier for individuals with asthma to breathe. The other options mentioned (a. Prednisolone, c. Dexamethasone, and d. Hypotension) are not typically administered by inhalation for the treatment of respiratory conditions. Prednisolone and dexamethasone are corticosteroids that are often given orally or by other routes for various medical purposes, and hypotension is a condition characterized by low blood pressure.
8. All are side effects of steroids; EXCEPT:
a. Diabetes
b. Osteoporosis
c. Fragile skin
d. Hypotension
Answer: d. Hypotension
Description:a. Diabetes: Steroids can cause elevated blood sugar levels and contribute to the development of diabetes in some individuals. b. Osteoporosis: Long-term use of steroids can lead to decreased bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis, which makes bones more fragile and prone to fractures. c. Fragile skin: Steroids can cause thinning of the skin, making it more prone to bruising and tearing. However, the side effect "Hypotension" (low blood pressure) is not typically associated with the use of steroids. In fact, steroids can often lead to elevated blood pressure (hypertension) as a side effect
9. Which of the following is the side effect of steroids due to its mineralocorticoid components:
a. Skin striae
b. Hypertension
c. Osteoporosis
d. Moon face
Answer: b. Hypertension
Description:Steroids, particularly glucocorticoids, can have mineralocorticoid activity, which can lead to sodium and water retention, potassium loss, and an increase in blood pressure. This is why hypertension (high blood pressure) is a potential side effect of steroids, particularly when they are used for an extended period or at high doses. The other options mentioned (a. Skin striae, c. Osteoporosis, and d. Moon face) are side effects associated with the glucocorticoid component of steroids and may not be directly related to mineralocorticoid activity.
10. Prolonged testosterone treatment to a man results in:
a. Increased spermatogenesis
b. Increased sperm motility
c. Azoospermia
d. Increased gonadotropins
Answer: c. Azoospermia
Description:Azoospermia refers to the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Prolonged testosterone treatment can suppress the body's natural production of sperm by inhibiting the release of gonadotropins (luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone) from the pituitary gland. As a result, sperm production can be greatly reduced or even completely halted, leading to azoospermia. Options a (increased spermatogenesis), b (increased sperm motility), and d (increased gonadotropins) are not typically associated with prolonged testosterone treatment. In fact, exogenous testosterone administration can have the opposite effect on these parameters.
11. Somatostatin secreted by which type of cells in pancreas?
a. Gamma cells
b. Delta cells
c. Alpha cells
d. Beta cells.
Answer: b. Delta cells
Description:Delta cells, also known as D cells, are a type of pancreatic islet cell (or islet of Langerhans cell) that secretes somatostatin. Somatostatin plays a role in regulating various physiological processes, including the inhibition of the release of hormones such as insulin and glucagon from nearby alpha and beta cells in the pancreas. This helps maintain proper control of blood glucose levels and other hormonal responses in the body.
12. Complication of aerosol steroids use includes:
a. Oral candidiasis
b. Cushing’s syndrome
c. Decreased ACTH
d. Systemic complications.
Answer: a. Oral candidiasis
Description:Aerosolized or inhaled corticosteroids can sometimes lead to the development of oral candidiasis (thrush) as a side effect. This is because corticosteroids can suppress the immune response in the oral cavity, allowing the overgrowth of Candida, a type of yeast, which can cause an oral fungal infection. Option b (Cushing's syndrome) and c (Decreased ACTH) are potential complications associated with long-term systemic corticosteroid use but are less likely with inhaled corticosteroids, which have a more localized effect in the respiratory tract. Option d (Systemic complications) is not a specific complication of aerosol steroid use because inhaled corticosteroids are designed to have minimal systemic absorption, which reduces the risk of systemic side effects compared to oral corticosteroids. However, it's still important to use inhaled corticosteroids as directed by a healthcare provider to minimize the risk of any potential systemic effects.
13. One of the following is not true about melatonin:
a. Induces sleep
b. Used in treatment of jet lag syndrome
c. Is secreted by pituitary
d. Is a pineal hormone
Answer: c. Is secreted by pituitary
Description:This statement is not true. Melatonin is not secreted by the pituitary gland. Instead, melatonin is primarily produced and secreted by the pineal gland, which is a small gland located in the brain. Melatonin plays a key role in regulating the sleep-wake cycle and is often referred to as the "sleep hormone." It is involved in inducing sleep (option a) and is used as a treatment for conditions like jet lag syndrome (option b) to help reset the body's internal clock and improve sleep patterns.
14. ADH acts on:
a. Proximal convoluted tube
b. Distal convoluted tubule
c. Loop of Henle
d. Collecting duct
Answer: d. Collecting duct
Description:ADH regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys by acting on the collecting ducts, allowing the body to reabsorb water and concentrate urine when necessary. This helps in maintaining water balance in the body.
15. Clotrimazole is:
a. Antiprotozoal drug
b. Antibacterial drug
c. Antiviral drug
d. Antifungal drug
Answer: d. Antifungal drug
Description:Clotrimazole is commonly used to treat fungal infections, including those of the skin, nails, and mucous membranes. It works by inhibiting the growth of fungi and is not effective against protozoa, bacteria, or viruses.
16. Which of the following is not an antifungal agent?
a. Fluconazole
b. Ketoconazole
c. Tinidazole
d. Clotrimazole
Answer: c. Tinidazole
Description:Tinidazole is not an antifungal agent. It is actually an antimicrobial medication, specifically an antibiotic, that is used to treat various bacterial and protozoal infections. It is commonly used to treat conditions such as bacterial vaginosis and certain parasitic infections, but it is not effective against fungal infections.
17. Liniments should not be applied on the:
a. Normal skin
b. Painful skin
c. Broken skin
d. Swollen skin
Answer: c. Broken skin
Description:Liniments are topical solutions or lotions used for pain relief or to soothe sore muscles and joints. They are typically applied to the skin over the affected area. However, they should not be applied to broken or damaged skin because the active ingredients in liniments can irritate open wounds or broken skin and potentially lead to further complications or discomfort. Liniments are intended for use on intact, healthy skin, so options a (normal skin), b (painful skin), and d (swollen skin) are generally acceptable for application.
18. A patient with systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is being assessed to start hydroxychloroquine therapy. Which of the following pre-existing condition is a contraindication to start hydroxychloroquine?
a. Maculopathy
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Asthma
d. Pregnancy
Answer: a. Maculopathy
Description:Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial drug that is also used to treat autoimmune conditions like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and rheumatoid arthritis. However, it can have adverse effects on the retina, potentially causing maculopathy, a condition that affects the central part of the retina and can lead to vision problems. Therefore, individuals with pre-existing maculopathy or retinal disease are typically advised against using hydroxychloroquine. Options b (rheumatoid arthritis), c (asthma), and d (pregnancy) are not contraindications for hydroxychloroquine therapy, but the drug should be used cautiously and under the guidance of a healthcare provider, especially during pregnancy, to assess the potential risks and benefits.
19. Amphotericin B is a:
a. Azole
b. Benzofuran
c. Fungicidal
d. Fungistatic
Answer: c. Fungicidal
Description:Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication known for its fungicidal activity, meaning it has the ability to directly kill fungal organisms. It is often used in the treatment of serious systemic fungal infections, although it can have significant side effects and is typically reserved for severe cases due to its potency. Options a (azole), b (benzofuran), and d (fungistatic) do not accurately describe amphotericin B's classification or mechanism of action.
20. Which of the following drug is recommended along with intravenous of quinine sulfate for treatment of malaria?
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Hydrocortisone
c. Multivitamin
d. Glucose
Answer: d. Glucose
Description:Quinin sulfate administration may cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemic). So, glucose has to be administration to counter hypoglycemic effect of quinine.
21. Which of the following antimalarial drug is safe for a child with GPD (glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase) deficiency?
a. Methoquine
b. Quinine
c. Mefloquine
d. Chloroquine
Answer: c. Mefloquine
Description:Mefloquine is considered to be a safe drug to be used in children with glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. Other drugs given above are contraindicated to use in this condition.
22. Chloroquine is/an………………drug:
a. Antimalarial
b. Antimicrobial
c. Antiviral
d. Antiamoebic
Answer: a. Antimalarial
Description:Chloroquine is primarily used as an antimalarial medication to treat and prevent malaria, a mosquito-borne infectious disease caused by Plasmodium parasites. It is not typically used as an antimicrobial, antiviral, or antiamoebic drug, although it may have some other off-label uses in certain situations.
23. Primaquine is contraindicated in deficiency of:
a. Glucose 6 phosphate
b. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
c. Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
d. Pyruvate kinase
Answer: b. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
Description:Primaquine is an antimalarial medication that can cause hemolytic anemia in individuals with a deficiency of G6PD, which is an enzyme involved in protecting red blood cells from oxidative damage. People with G6PD deficiency are at risk of red blood cell breakdown (hemolysis) when exposed to certain drugs, including primaquine. Therefore, it is important to screen for G6PD deficiency before prescribing primaquine to ensure the safe use of the medication.
24. The drug of choice in the management of preeclampsia is:
a. Magnesium sulfate
b. Calcium gluconate
c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Sodium nitroprusside
Answer: a. Magnesium sulfate
Description:Magnesium sulfate is the standard medication used to manage preeclampsia and prevent eclampsia (seizures) in pregnant women with the condition. It helps to relax blood vessels, lower blood pressure, and prevent seizures. It is administered intravenously under medical supervision. The other options (b. Calcium gluconate, c. Sodium bicarbonate, and d. Sodium nitroprusside) are not typically used as first-line treatments for preeclampsia.
25. Which of the following drugs is implicated in the causation of ostemalacia of the bone?
a. Phenytoin
b. Steroids
c. Heparin
d. Estrogen
Answer: a. Phenytoin
Description:Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can interfere with the metabolism of vitamin D, which in turn can lead to a decrease in calcium absorption and result in osteomalacia, a condition characterized by softening of the bones. Prolonged use of phenytoin may contribute to this side effect. The other options (b. Steroids, c. Heparin, and d. Estrogen) can have various effects on bone health but are not typically associated with causing osteomalacia to the same extent as phenytoin.
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