NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 200
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1. Drug of choice for status epilepticus is:
a. Carbamazepine
b. Diazepam
c. Phenytoin sodium
d. Valproic acid
Answer: b. Diazepam
Description:The drug of choice for treating status epilepticus is typically a benzodiazepine, and in this case, option b, Diazepam, is the correct choice. Diazepam is a fast-acting anticonvulsant medication commonly used to stop prolonged or continuous seizure activity during status epilepticus. It can be administered intravenously or rectally in emergency situations. Carbamazepine (option a), phenytoin sodium (option c), and valproic acid (option d) are not typically used as the first-line treatment for status epilepticus because they have a slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like Diazepam. These medications are more commonly used for the long-term management of epilepsy, rather than for the acute treatment of seizures in a status epilepticus situation.
2. Which of the following antiepileptic is preferred when as epileptic patient is not responding to phenytoin?
a. Carbamazepine
b. Clonazepam
c. Diazepam
d. Sodium valproate
Answer: a. Carbamazepine
Description:Carbamazepine is often considered a reasonable choice when phenytoin is ineffective. It belongs to the same class of medications known as sodium channel blockers and can be effective in controlling certain types of seizures. The choice of the next antiepileptic drug after phenytoin will depend on various factors, including the type of seizures the patient is experiencing, the patient's medical history, and any potential side effects or drug interactions. The decision should be made by a healthcare professional based on a thorough evaluation of the patient's condition. It's important for patients with epilepsy to work closely with their healthcare team to find the most appropriate and effective treatment.
3. Intravenous phenytoin should not be insured rapidly because it can cause:
a. Hypertension and syncope
b. Hypotension and cardiac dysrhythmias
c. Hypertension and atrial fibrillation
d. Hypotension and hypoglycemia
Answer: b. Hypotension and cardiac dysrhythmias
Description:Phenytoin has the potential to cause cardiovascular side effects, including hypotension (low blood pressure) and cardiac dysrhythmias (abnormal heart rhythms), especially when administered too quickly. To minimize these risks, phenytoin should be given at a controlled and slow rate of infusion, typically no faster than 50 mg per minute, and the patient should be closely monitored during the administration.
4. Medication used pediculosis treatment includes
a. DDT 5%-10%
b. Carbolic lotion 1:40
c. Kerosene coconut oil 1:1 ratio
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Medications used for pediculosis (head lice) treatment can include DDT 5%-10%, carbolic lotion 1:40, and kerosene coconut oil in a 1:1 ratio. This means that all of these options can be used to treat head lice infestations.
5. Which of the following is a common side effect streptomycin?
a. Damage to facial nerve
b. Damage to 8th cranial nerve
d. Bone marrow depression
d. Hypersensitivity
Answer: b. Damage to 8th cranial nerve
Description:Antibiotics in the aminoglycoside class (Streptomycin; Gentamicin, tobramycin) may cause damage to 8th cranial nerve which results in loss of hearing, balancing problems, neuromuscular blockage, peripheral neuropathy, dizziness and vomiting.
6. Which of the following antitubercular drug causes red orange discoloration of urine?
a. Isoniazid
b. Ethambutol
c. Streptomycin
d. Rifampicin
Answer: d. Rifampicin
Description:Rifampicin causes red orange discoloration of urine.
7. All of the following antitubercular drugs crosses blood brain barrier; EXCEPT:
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Streptomycin
Answer: d. Streptomycin
Description:Streptomycin is less effective in treating tuberculosis that has spread to the central nervous system (CNS) because it has limited penetration through the blood-brain barrier. In contrast, isoniazid, rifampicin, and pyrazinamide are more capable of crossing the blood-brain barrier, which makes them better suited for treating tuberculosis infections that have reached the brain or the central nervous system.
8. Which of the following antitubercular drug causes peripheral neuropathy?
a. Isoniazid
b. Pyrazinamide
c. Rifampicin
d. Dapsone
Answer: a. Isoniazid
Description:Prolonged use of Isoniazid (INH) leads to deficiency of pyridoxine hence, causes peripheral neuropathy.
9. Prolonged use of isoniazid (INH) leads to deficiency of:
a. Niacin
b. Cyanocobalamin
c. Folic acid
d. Pyridoxine
Answer: d. Pyridoxine
Description:Prolonged treatment with the drug Isoniazid (INH) will cause deficiency of which leads to peripheral neuropathy.
10. The drug of choice for prophylaxis of tuberculosis is:
a. Streptomycin
b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid (INH)
d. Rifampicin
Answer: c. Isoniazid (INH)
Description:Isoniazid is commonly used as a first-line medication for tuberculosis prophylaxis in individuals who are at high risk of developing active tuberculosis. It is effective in preventing the development of active tuberculosis disease in individuals who have been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis, particularly in latent tuberculosis infection cases.
11. The purpose of combination drug therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis is to reduce:
a. The duration of treatment
b. Adverse effects of the drugs
c. Dosage of drugs
d. Drugs resistance
Answer: d. Drugs resistance
Description:Use of combination of drugs reduces the risk of drug resistance by infective organism
12. Retrobulbar neuritis is a side effect of which of the following drug?
a. Ethambutol
b. Isoniazid
c. Streptomycin
d. Pyrazinamide
Answer: a. Ethambutol
Description:Ethambutol causes optic neuropathy (retrobulbar neuritis) in 1-5% of patients using the antituberculosis drugs.
13. Rifampicin is used for prophylaxis of:
a. Gonorrhea
b. Malaria
c. Leprosy
d. Meningococcal meningitis
Answer: d. Meningococcal meningitis
Description:Rifampicin is sometimes prescribed to individuals who have been in close contact with someone diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis to prevent the spread of the disease. It is not typically used for prophylaxis of gonorrhea, malaria, or leprosy.
14. Which of the following antitubercular drug is an aminoglycoside?
a. Rifampicin
b. Isoniazid
c. Ethambutol
d. Streptomycin
Answer: d. Streptomycin
Description:Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that is used in the treatment of tuberculosis. It is effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, and is one of the first-line drugs used in tuberculosis treatment.
15. Streptomycin is not administered orally because;
a. It gets deactivated during first pass metabolism
b. It can cause gastric ulcer
c. It can cause gastric bleeding
d. It is not absorbed orally
Answer: d. It is not absorbed orally
Description:Streptomycin is not well absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract when taken orally, which is why it is typically administered through intramuscular or intravenous injection for therapeutic purposes. This helps ensure that a sufficient amount of the drug reaches the bloodstream and the target tissues, such as those affected by tuberculosis.
16. Which of the following antitubercular drugs is associated with red green color blindness?
a. Cyclomerize
b. Isoniazid
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutol
Answer: d. Ethambutol
Description:Ethambutol is known to potentially cause optic neuritis and vision problems, including red-green color blindness, as one of its side effects. Therefore, individuals taking ethambutol need regular monitoring of their vision to detect any visual disturbances promptly.
17. INH induced peripheral neuropathy results from deficiency of:
a. B1
b. B2
c. B6
d. B12
Answer: c. B6
Description:Isoniazid can interfere with the metabolism of vitamin B6, leading to a deficiency of this vitamin, which can, in turn, result in peripheral neuropathy as a side effect. Vitamin B6 supplementation is often recommended to prevent or treat INH-induced peripheral neuropathy in individuals taking isoniazid for tuberculosis treatment.
18. Peripheral neuritis is a side effect of which antitubercular drug:
a. Rifampicin
b. Isoniazid
c. Streptomycin
d. Ethambutol
Answer: b. Isoniazid
Description:Isoniazid (INH) can lead to peripheral neuritis as a side effect, and it is one of the reasons why vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) supplementation is often recommended for individuals taking isoniazid to prevent or mitigate this side effect.
19. Peripheral neuritis caused by isoniazid can be prevented by providing?
a. Niacin
b. Aspirin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Thiamine
Answer: c. Pyridoxine
Description:Supplementing with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is commonly recommended for individuals taking isoniazid to prevent or reduce the risk of peripheral neuritis, which is a known side effect of the drug.
20. Bacteriostatic antitubercular drug is:
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampin
c. Streptomycin
d. Ethambutol
Answer: d. Ethambutol
Description:Ethambutol is considered a bacteriostatic drug because it inhibits the growth and replication of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis, without killing them directly. In contrast, isoniazid, rifampin, and streptomycin are considered bactericidal drugs because they actively kill the bacteria.
21. All of the following are the side effects of Rifampicin; EXCEPT:
a. Anorexia
b. Dizziness
c. Orange colored urine
d. Hypertension
Answer: d. Hypertension
Description:Rifampicin is not typically known for causing hypertension as a side effect. However, it can cause anorexia (loss of appetite), dizziness, and orange-colored urine, among other potential side effects.
22. Which of the following laboratory test must be ordered before the patient started on isoniazid (INH) therapy?
a. Bleeding time and coagulation time
b. Liver function test
c. Renal function test
d. Serum electrolytes
Answer: b. Liver function test
Description:Isoniazid (INH) can have an adverse effect on the liver, and monitoring liver function through laboratory tests is essential to assess baseline liver health and to detect any signs of liver dysfunction during the course of treatment.
23. All of the following are the actions of acetylcholine; EXCEPT:
a. Contraction of detrusor muscle
b. Decrease in heart rate
c. Dilatation of pupil
d. Increased salivation
Answer: c. Dilatation of pupil
Description:Acetylcholine is a miotic agent thus, causes constriction of pupil. Mydriatic agents (Atropine) causes dilation of pupil
24. Which of the following class of drugs constricts the pupil?
a. Mydriatics
b. Miotics
c. Both mydriatics and miotics
d. None of the above.
Answer: b. Miotics
Description:Miotics are drugs that cause the pupil (the black part in the center of the eye) to constrict or become smaller. They are used to treat conditions like glaucoma and sometimes for diagnostic purposes in ophthalmology. In contrast, mydriatics are drugs that dilate the pupil and make it larger.
25. The action of mydriases is:
a. Contraction of arteries
b. Constriction of the pupil
c. Dilation of arteries
d. Dilation of the pupil
Answer: d. Dilation of the pupil
Description:Mydriatics are drugs or substances that cause the pupil (the black part in the center of the eye) to dilate or become larger. This dilation of the pupil allows more light to enter the eye and is used for various medical and diagnostic purposes in ophthalmology.
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