NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 201
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1. Which of the following drug likely to cause macular toxicity when administered intravitreally?
a. Cefotaxime
b. Vancomycin
c. Gentamycin
d. Dexamethasone
Answer: c. Gentamycin
Description:Gentamycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can be toxic to the retina, including the macula, when administered intravitreally. Macular toxicity is a known potential side effect of gentamycin when used in this manner. The other options (a, b, and d) are less likely to cause macular toxicity when administered intravitreally.
2. All of the following drugs are used topically to treat open angle glaucoma; EXCEPT:
a. Dorzolamide
b. Acetazolamide
c. Latanoprost
d. Brinzolamide
Answer: b. Acetazolamide
Description:Acetazolamide is typically taken orally and is not usually administered topically for the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. The other options (a, c, and d) are topical ophthalmic medications commonly used to manage open-angle glaucoma.
3. Which of the following medication is used in the management of raised ICP?
a. Diazepam
b. Phenytoin
c. Mannitol
d. Furosemide
Answer: c. Mannitol
Description:Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic often used to reduce elevated intracranial pressure by drawing excess fluid out of the brain tissue and into the bloodstream. It is commonly used in the management of conditions such as traumatic brain injury, cerebral edema, and intracranial hypertension. The other options (a, b, and d) may have various medical uses, but they are not typically the first-line treatments for raised ICP. Diazepam is a sedative and anxiolytic, phenytoin is an anticonvulsant, and furosemide is a diuretic, but they are not primary agents for lowering intracranial pressure.
4. Mannitol decreases the intraocular pressure by:
a. Withdrawing water from vitreous
b. Increasing uveoscleral outflow.
c. Increasing aqueous through trabecular meshwork
d. Inhibiting the enzyme anhydrase in the ciliary body
Answer: a. Withdrawing water from vitreous
Description:Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic agent. Its osmotic properties take effect in 15-30 minutes when it sets up an osmotic gradient and draws water out of neurons. Mannitol it therefore, best used by bolus administration where an acute reduction in ICP is necessary.
5. Which of the following drug is a administered to reduce the elevated intracranial pressure?
a. Hydralazine
b. Mannitol
c. Nitrofurantoin
d. Sodium nitroprusside
Answer: b. Mannitol
Description:Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic commonly used to lower elevated intracranial pressure. It works by drawing excess fluid out of brain tissue and into the bloodstream, helping to reduce pressure within the skull. The other options (a, c, and d) are not typically used for this purpose. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication, nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and sodium nitroprusside is a medication used to lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies, but none of them are used primarily to reduce intracranial pressure.
6. Which of the following is an osmotic diuretic?
a. Lasix
b. Spironolactone
c. Aldactone
d. Mannitol
Answer: d. Mannitol
Description:Mannitol is a type of osmotic diuretic commonly used to increase urine production and reduce fluid buildup in various medical conditions. Lasix (a) is not an osmotic diuretic; it is a loop diuretic. Spironolactone (b) and Aldactone (c) are potassium-sparing diuretics, which work differently from osmotic diuretics like mannitol.
7. Which of the following is not an osmotic diuretic?
a. Furosemide
b. Glycerol
c. Isosorbide
d. Mannitol
Answer: a. Furosemide
Description:Furosemide is a loop diuretic. All other drugs given above are osmotic diuretics.
8. The diuretics should be administered early in the morning to:
a. Prevent drug-food interaction
b. Prevent nausea and vomiting.
c. To avoid nocturia
d. To promote absorption
Answer: c. To avoid nocturia
Description:Diuretics increases the urine excretion. If the drug is administered in the evening/night, it may result in nocturia. Nocturia is a condition in which the patient need to get up many times during the night to urinate. So, it is recommended to administer diuretics early in the morning.
9. When administering loop diuretic to a client, the nurse anticipates that the client may develop which electrolyte imbalance?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypernatremia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypervolemia
Answer: c. Hypokalemia
Description:Loop diuretic inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle resulting in the excretion of sodium, chloride and to lesser degree potassium and bicarbonate ions.
10. The diuretic used in the treatment of open angle glaucoma in:
a. Furosemide
b. Acetazolamide
c. Spironolactone
d. Mannitol
Answer: b. Acetazolamide
Description:Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic that is sometimes used to lower intraocular pressure in individuals with open-angle glaucoma. It works by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye, which can help lower intraocular pressure and manage the condition. The other options (a, c, and d) are not typically used for the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. Furosemide is a loop diuretic, spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and mannitol is an osmotic diuretic, but they are not the primary choice for glaucoma treatment.
11. Potassium sparing diuretics is:
a. Spironoalctone
b. Triamterene
c. Amiloride
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:All of the listed options, spironolactone, triamterene, and amiloride, are potassium-sparing diuretics. These drugs work by reducing sodium reabsorption in the kidney tubules while conserving potassium, resulting in diuretic effects without causing significant loss of potassium from the body.
12. The nurse must take the following precaution when the patient receiving furosemide:
a. Advise the patient to quit smoking
b. Advise the patient to do regular aerobic exercises
c. Advise the patient for low calorie diet
d. Check blood sugar and urine sugar of the patient.
Answer: d. Check blood sugar and urine sugar of the patient.
Description:Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can potentially cause electrolyte imbalances, including changes in blood glucose levels. Therefore, it is important to monitor the patient's blood sugar and urine sugar levels to detect any abnormalities while they are receiving furosemide. The other options (a, b, and c) are not specific precautions related to furosemide administration.
13. Which of the following is a contraindication for spinal anesthesia?
a. Diabetes
b. Children
c. Elderly patient
d. Sepsis
Answer: d. Sepsis
Description:Sepsis is a contraindication for spinal anesthesia. Spinal anesthesia involves injecting anesthesia into the spinal fluid, and it can lead to complications in patients with sepsis due to the risk of spreading infection to the central nervous system. Diabetes, children, and elderly patients are not absolute contraindications for spinal anesthesia, although caution and individualized assessment may be necessary in these cases to minimize risks and ensure patient safety.
14. Which of the following drug in combination with catecholamines given during surgery likely to causes arrhythmias?
a. Lidocaine
b. Halothane
c. Propofol
d. Digoxin
Answer: b. Halothane
Description:Halothane is an inhalation anesthetic that can sensitize the heart to the effects of catecholamines like adrenaline and noradrenaline, potentially leading to arrhythmias. It is known to be more arrhythmogenic when used in combination with catecholamines during surgery. The other options (a, c, and d) are not typically associated with an increased risk of arrhythmias when combined with catecholamines during surgery. Lidocaine (a) is sometimes used to treat arrhythmias, propofol (c) is an intravenous anesthetic, and digoxin (d) is a cardiac medication that can affect heart rhythm but is not commonly used in conjunction with catecholamines during surgery.
15. A patient underwent surgical procedure under general anesthesia and being shifted to post anesthesia care unit (PACU). While receiving the patient in PACU, which of the following assessment is most important?
a. Vital signs
b. Level of patients
c. Respiratory status
d. Consciousness level
Answer: c. Respiratory status
Description:Assessing the patient's respiratory status is crucial in the PACU because patients who have undergone surgery and received general anesthesia are at risk of respiratory complications. Monitoring for adequate ventilation, oxygenation, and the presence of any signs of respiratory distress or complications is a top priority to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. While vital signs (a), the level of consciousness (b), and other assessments are important, the immediate concern in the PACU is often focused on the patient's ability to breathe effectively and maintain proper oxygenation.
16. During induction of general anesthesia, the patient becomes extremely anxious, hyperactive and physically resists the treatment. Which of the following intervention is required in the situation?
a. Need to reschedule the surgery
b. Anesthesia should be discontinued
c. An IV drug to be administered to calm down the patient
d. None of the above.
Answer: c. An IV drug to be administered to calm down the patient
Description:Administering an intravenous (IV) medication to calm the patient is often necessary to manage their extreme anxiety and agitation during the induction of anesthesia. This can help make the patient more cooperative and ensure the safe and smooth continuation of the anesthesia induction process. Rescheduling the surgery (a) or discontinuing anesthesia (b) should not be the first options considered, as addressing the patient's anxiety and ensuring their cooperation is typically the initial priority to proceed with the planned surgery safely.
17. Nurse Ramya is preparing a patient who is scheduled for surgery under general anesthesia. Which of the following pre-operative instruction is appropriate for this patient?
a. Eat light breakfast on the day of surgery
b. Urinary incontinence is expected postoperatively
c. Nausea, vomiting, shivering are expected postoperatively
d. Take all the medications due of the day in the morning itself.
Answer: c. Nausea, vomiting, shivering are expected postoperatively
Description:a. Eating a light breakfast on the day of surgery is generally not recommended as patients are typically instructed to fast for a certain period before surgery to reduce the risk of aspiration. b. Urinary incontinence is not expected postoperatively as a routine outcome of surgery. It may occur in some cases but should not be presented as an expectation. d. Taking medications on the day of surgery should be done only under specific instructions from the healthcare provider, as some medications may need to be withheld prior to surgery to prevent potential complications.
18. Common adverse effects of thiopental include:
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Headache
c. Emergency delirium
d. Hemiparesis
Answer: c. Emergency delirium
Description:Thiopental can sometimes cause emergency delirium, which is characterized by disorientation, confusion, and agitation upon waking from anesthesia. Other possible side effects may include headache (b), nausea and vomiting (a), but these are generally less common than emergency delirium. Hemiparesis (d), which is weakness on one side of the body, is not typically associated with thiopental.
19. All of the following drugs belong to sedative and hypnotics group; EXCEPT:
a. Diazepam
b. Nitrazepam
c. Clozapine
d. Lorazepam
Answer: c. Clozapine
Description:All of the above given drugs belongs to benzodiazepines. However, clozapine is primarily an antipsychotic drug. All other given drugs belong to sedative and hypnotics.
20. Which of the following drugs is not an example of benzodiazepines?
a. Alprazolam
b. Chlordiazepoxide
c. Clorazepate
d. Phenytoin
Answer: d. Phenytoin
Description:Alprazolam, chlordiazepoxide, and clorazepate are all examples of benzodiazepines, which are a class of medications commonly used for their anxiolytic and sedative properties. Phenytoin, on the other hand, is an antiepileptic medication and does not belong to the benzodiazepine drug class.
21. Benzodiazepines acts by amplifying which of the following neurotransmitter in the body?
a. Epinephrine
b. Acetylcholine
c. GABA
d. Serotonin
Answer: c. GABA
Description:Benzodiazepines enhance the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, leading to sedative, anxiolytic (anxiety-reducing), muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant effects. This action on GABA receptors is one of the key mechanisms by which benzodiazepines exert their pharmacological effects.
22. Benzodiazepines are useful in the treatment of all the following condition; EXCEPT:
a. Insomnia
b. Epilepsy
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. Anxiety disorders
Answer: c. Alzheimer’s disease
Description:Benzodiazepines are useful in the treatment of various conditions, including insomnia (a), epilepsy (b), and anxiety disorders (d). However, they are generally not considered a primary or first-line treatment for Alzheimer's disease (c). Alzheimer's disease is a complex neurodegenerative condition with its own specific treatment approaches, and benzodiazepines are not typically used to manage the core symptoms of this condition. In fact, benzodiazepines can sometimes have adverse effects on cognition and memory, which may be counterproductive in Alzheimer's disease. Other medications and interventions are typically used to address the symptoms and progression of Alzheimer's disease.
23. Antidote of benzodiazepines is:
a. Flumazenil
b. Naloxone
c. Atropine sulphate
d. Acetylcysteine
Answer: a. Flumazenil
Description:Flumazenil is a specific antidote that can be used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines by competitively binding to their receptors in the central nervous system. This can rapidly reverse the sedative and hypnotic effects of benzodiazepines in cases of overdose or excessive sedation. The other options (b, c, and d) are antidotes for different types of substances or conditions (naloxone for opioid overdose, atropine sulfate for certain types of poisoning, and acetylcysteine for acetaminophen overdose) and are not used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines.
24. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
a. Valproic acid
b. Quinidine
c. Isoniazid
d. Procainamide
Answer: a. Valproic acid
Description:Valproic acid, an anticonvulsant and mood stabilizer, is known to be associated with the development of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe and potentially life-threatening skin reaction. It is essential to monitor patients taking valproic acid for any signs or symptoms of Stevens-Johnson syndrome and discontinue the medication if this condition is suspected. While the other drugs (quinidine, isoniazid, and procainamide) can also have severe side effects, including skin reactions, they are not specifically known for causing Stevens-Johnson syndrome to the same extent as valproic acid.
25. Phenytoin is used in the treatment of:
a. Petit mal epilepsy
b. Grand mal epilepsy
c. Myoclonic seizures
d. All of these
Answer: b. Grand mal epilepsy
Description:Phenytoin is the drug of choice for Grand mal epilepsy.
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