NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 203
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1. Which of the following drug is used to reverse the muscle relaxant effect of tubocurarine?
a. Succinylcholine
b. Neostigmine
c. Dantrolene
d. Baclofen
Answer: b. Neostigmine
Description:The drug used to reverse the muscle relaxant effect of tubocurarine is Neostigmine, so the correct answer is b. Neostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that increases the concentration of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, leading to the reversal of muscle relaxation caused by drugs like tubocurarine, which are neuromuscular blocking agents.
2. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxant has the lowest duration of action?
a. Vecuronium
b. Succinylcholine
c. Dantrolene
d. Tubocurarine
Answer: b. Succinylcholine
Description:The muscle relaxant used to treat both malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome is b. Dantrolene. Dantrolene is a medication that acts by reducing muscle contractions and is particularly effective in treating conditions associated with muscle rigidity, such as malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Malignant hyperthermia is a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthesia drugs, and dantrolene is used to counteract its effects by relaxing skeletal muscles and lowering body temperature. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious reaction to antipsychotic medications, and dantrolene can also be used to help manage its symptoms, including muscle rigidity and hyperthermia.
3. Which of the following muscle relaxant is used to treat spasticity and malignant hyperthermia of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
a. Vecuronium
b. Dantrolene
c. Neostigmine
d. Baclofen
Answer: b. Dantrolene
Description:Allopurinol is a medication commonly used to treat conditions like gout and hyperuricemia. It works by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is involved in the production of uric acid. By reducing the production of uric acid, allopurinol helps lower uric acid levels in the body, which can prevent the formation of uric acid crystals and reduce the risk of gout attacks.
4. A patient scheduled for a mastectomy surgery has a 10 years history of COPD. Which of the following muscle relaxant is contraindicated in this patient during the surgery?
a. Clonidine
b. Vecuronium
c. Tubocurarine
d. Succinylcholine.
Answer: c. Tubocurarine
Description:Tubocurarine may lead to release of histamine from cells which in turn cause bronchoconstriction. Hence tubocurarine should not be used in patient with COPD or asthma.
5. Which of the following drug acts by decreasing uric acid level in blood and urine?
a. Colchicine
b. Indomethacin
c. Allopurinol
d. Aspirin
Answer: c. Allopurinol
Description:Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. It acts by inducing the uric acid production in the body. Allopurinol is used to prevent gout attacks, not to treat them once they occur.
6. Which of the following drug acts by decreasing swelling and lessoning the deposition of uric acid crystals in the affected joints?
a. Allopurinol
b. Colchicine
c. Indomethacin
d. Aspirin
Answer: b. Colchicine
Description:Colchicine is commonly used to treat gout and works by reducing inflammation and inhibiting the movement of white blood cells into the areas of the body affected by uric acid crystals. This helps alleviate the pain and swelling associated with gout attacks and can prevent the further deposition of uric acid crystals in the affected joints.
7. Which of the following drugs inhibits cyclooxygenase irreversibly to prevent the production of pain causing prostaglandins?
a. Colchicine
b. Allopurinol
c. Aspirin
d. Paracetamol
Answer: c. Aspirin
Description: Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that works by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes, specifically COX-1 and COX-2. This inhibition reduces the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for pain, inflammation, and fever. Aspirin's irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase sets it apart from other NSAIDs, which typically have reversible effects on these enzymes.
8. Which of the following immunosuppressant drug is used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Indomethacin
b. Azathioprine
c. Ibuprofen
d. Colchicine.
Answer: b. Azathioprine
Description:The immunosuppressants used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis are nitrogen mustard, azathioprine, methotrexate, chlorambucil, 6 mercaptopurine, and cyclophorid.
9. Which of the following as antimalarial drug which is used widely for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Naproxen
b. Artemisinin
c. Hydroxychloroquine
d. Mefloquine
Answer: c. Hydroxychloroquine
Description:Hydroxychloroquine is also used to treat and manage other autoimmune conditions like systemic lupus erythematosus. While it was originally developed as an antimalarial medication, it has found extensive use in the treatment of various rheumatic diseases due to its anti-inflammatory properties and its ability to modulate the immune response.
10. All of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of gout arthritis; EXCEPT:
a. Allopurinol
b. Colchicine
c. Probenecid
d. Acetazolamide
Answer: d. Acetazolamide
Description:Acetazolamide is a medication primarily used to treat conditions like glaucoma and altitude sickness. It is not typically used in the treatment of gout arthritis. The other options (a. Allopurinol, b. Colchicine, and c. Probenecid) are commonly used in the management of gout.
11. Which of the following food item is avoided in patient who is on MAO inhibitors such as phenelzine?
a. Grapes
b. Banana
c. Strawberry
d. Red wine and cheese
Answer: d. Red wine and cheese
Description:The food items to avoid when taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine typically include foods and beverages that are high in tyramine, as consuming them can lead to a potentially dangerous increase in blood pressure. Red wine and cheese are examples of foods high in tyramine, so option d is the correct answer. While grapes, bananas, and strawberries are not specifically high in tyramine and are generally considered safe to consume in moderation while taking MAO inhibitors, it's essential for individuals on these medications to follow their healthcare provider's advice and adhere to any dietary restrictions provided to them.
12. Which of the following drug is a beta-1 selective agonist which is used to increase stroke volume in patients with cardiogenic shock?
a. Epinephrine
b. Dobutamine
c. Dopamine
d. Norepinephrine
Answer: b. Dobutamine
Description:Dobutamine is a beta-1 selective agonist that is used to increase stroke volume in patients with conditions such as cardiogenic shock. It primarily stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to increased contractility (the force of heart contractions) and thus improving cardiac output. While other medications like epinephrine, dopamine, and norepinephrine are also used in various clinical situations, dobutamine is specifically known for its role in enhancing the pumping function of the heart in cases of cardiogenic shock.
13. An 18 year old patient suffering from anaphylactic reaction is brought to the emergency room. The patient is having severe dyspnea and urticaria and lower blood pressure. Which of the following is the most suitable drug to treat this patient life threating condition?
a. Terbutaline
b. Phenylephrine
c. Epinephrine
d. Dobutamine
Answer: c. Epinephrine
Description:In the case of an anaphylactic reaction, which is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction, epinephrine (also known as adrenaline) is the most suitable and first-line treatment. Epinephrine acts quickly to counteract the allergic response by: Dilating the airways to alleviate severe dyspnea and improve breathing. Constricting blood vessels to help raise blood pressure and combat shock. Reducing urticaria (hives) and other allergic symptoms. Terbutaline (a beta-2 agonist), phenylephrine (an alpha-1 agonist), and dobutamine (a beta-1 agonist) are not the first-line treatments for anaphylaxis. Epinephrine is the medication of choice due to its rapid and comprehensive effects in addressing the life-threatening aspects of the condition. After administering epinephrine, other supportive measures and medications may be considered based on the patient's response and clinical condition.
14. Atropine does not causes:
a. Increase bowel sound
b. Decrease bowel sound
c. Hypotension
d. Tachycardia
Answer: a. Increase bowel sound
Description:Atropine does not cause an increase in bowel sounds.
15. Drug useful for gout:
a. Pyrazinamide
b. Rifampicin
c. Allopurinol
d. Naloxone
Answer: c. Allopurinol
Description:The drug useful for gout is Allopurinol (option c). It helps lower the levels of uric acid in the body, which can reduce the pain and inflammation associated with gout attacks.
16. Atropine is commonly used prior to administration of inhalant anesthetics to reduce:
a. Muscle tone
b. Secretions
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. All of these
Answer: b. Secretions
Description:Atropine is commonly used before giving inhalant anesthetics to reduce excessive secretions (option b), helping to keep the airways clear during anesthesia.
17. Which of the following drug is a beta-1 selective agonist which is used to increase stroke volume in patients with cardiogenic shock?
a. Epinephrine
b. Dobutamine
c. Dopamine
d. Norepinephrine
Answer: b. Dobutamine
Description:Atropine is an anticholinergic agent which reduces secretions in respiratory tract.
18. Atropine is most sensitive to:
a. Mucous and pharyngeal secretions.
b. Heart
c. Pupil
d. GI tract motility
Answer: a. Mucous and pharyngeal secretions.
Description:Atropine is most sensitive to reducing mucous and pharyngeal secretions (option a). It is often used to dry up secretions in medical procedures.
19. Which one of the following acts commonly both on parasympathetic and sympathetic division
a. Atropine
b. Pilocarpine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Adrenaline
Answer: c. Acetylcholine
Description:Acetylcholine (option c) is the neurotransmitter that commonly acts on both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.
20. Acetylcholine is not used commercially because:
a. Long duration of action
b. Costly
c. Rapidly destroyed in the body
d. Crosses blood brain barrier.
Answer: c. Rapidly destroyed in the body
Description:Acetylcholine is not used commercially because it is rapidly destroyed in the body (option c). This rapid breakdown limits its practical use as a therapeutic agent.
21. An irreversible side effect of antipsychotics is:
a. Akathisia
b. Tardive dyskinesia
c. Tremor
d. Sleeplessness
Answer: b. Tardive dyskinesia
Description:An irreversible side effect of antipsychotics is tardive dyskinesia (option b). This condition involves involuntary and repetitive movements of the face and body and can become permanent in some cases.
22. All of the following may be seen with neuroleptic malignant syndrome; EXCEPT:
a. Hypothermia
b. Altered consciousness
c. Muscle rigidity
d. Involuntary movements
Answer: a. Hypothermia
Description:All of the following may be seen with neuroleptic malignant syndrome except for hypothermia (option a). Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is typically associated with hyperthermia (high body temperature).
23. Clozapine is an example of:
a. Antipsychotic
b. Antidepressant
c. Mood stabilizer
d. Anxiolytic
Answer: a. Antipsychotic
Description:Clozapine is an example of an antipsychotic medication (option a).
24. Schizophrenia is treated by:
a. Antidepressants
b. Antipsychotics
c. Antiepileptics
d. Mood stabilizers.
Answer: b. Antipsychotics
Description:Schizophrenia is typically treated with antipsychotic medications (option b).
25. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by:
a. Hypothermia
b. Labile blood pressure
c. Bradycardia
d. Flaccidity
Answer: b. Labile blood pressure
Description:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by labile (fluctuating) blood pressure (option b), among other symptoms such as hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and altered mental status. It is important to note that hypothermia (option a), bradycardia (option c), and flaccidity (option d) are not typically associated with this syndrome.
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