NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 205
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1. Ethanol is given in methyl alcohol poisoning because:
a. It inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase
b. It inhibits aldehyde synthetase
c. It binds to alcohol dehydrogenase stronger than methanol
d. None of the above.
Answer: c. It binds to alcohol dehydrogenase stronger than methanol
Description:Ethanol is sometimes administered in cases of methyl alcohol (methanol) poisoning because it competes with methanol for the same enzyme, alcohol dehydrogenase, which is responsible for metabolizing both methanol and ethanol. Ethanol binds to alcohol dehydrogenase more strongly than methanol, so it can effectively slow down the conversion of methanol into its toxic metabolites, giving the body more time to eliminate the methanol through other means, such as renal excretion. This can help reduce the severity of methanol poisoning.
2. Which of the following is most commonly used worldwide for maintenance therapy of opioid dependence?
a. LAMA
b. Methadone
c. Naloxone
d. Pethidine
Answer: b. Methadone
Description:Methadone is the most commonly used medication worldwide for the maintenance therapy of opioid dependence. Methadone is a long-acting opioid agonist that helps to reduce opioid cravings and withdrawal symptoms, allowing individuals with opioid dependence to stabilize their lives and gradually reduce their dependence on opioids. This approach is known as medication-assisted treatment (MAT) and is a widely accepted and effective strategy for managing opioid addiction.
3. With barbiturate and benzodiazepine abuse and dependency, sedative intoxication is generally associated with:
a. Slurred speech
b. Impairment in attention and speech
c. Uncoordinated motor movements
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Sedative intoxication, whether from barbiturates or benzodiazepines, can lead to a range of symptoms, including slurred speech, impairment in attention and speech, and uncoordinated motor movements. These drugs have a depressant effect on the central nervous system, and their intoxication can manifest in various ways, including the symptoms listed in the options.
4. Flumazenil is:
a. Diazepam inverse agonist
b. Diazepam antagonist
c. Opioid antagonist
d. Opioid inverse agonist.
Answer: b. Diazepam antagonist
Description:Flumazenil is a medication that acts as a specific antagonist for benzodiazepines, like diazepam. It is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose or to rapidly reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines in situations where it's necessary, such as during medical procedures. It does so by binding to the same receptors in the brain that benzodiazepines bind to and blocking their effects, thus acting as an antagonist.
5. A client reported that she has missed a single dose of her combined oral contraceptive pills (OCP). Which of the following advice is appropriate for this patient?
a. Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the course
b. Take 2 pills every day for the remaining part of the course.
c. Discontinue the course and use barrier method for the rest of the cycle
d. Continue with the course without regard to the missed dose.
Answer: a. Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the course
Description:If one tablet is missed, it should be taken as soon as it is remembered, alternatively 2 tablets can be taken the following day.
6. Use of oral contraceptive pills by women reduces the risk of:
a. Breast cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Cervical cancer
d. Uterine cancer
Answer: b. Ovarian cancer
Description:The use of oral contraceptive pills by women has been associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer. This protective effect has been observed in studies, and it is one of the benefits of using oral contraceptives. However, it's important to note that while oral contraceptives may reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, they may have different effects on other types of cancer, and their use should be discussed with a healthcare provider based on an individual's specific health and contraceptive needs.
7. Which of the following drug may cause contraceptive failure if taken along with oral contraceptive?
a. Isoniazid
b. Ethambutol
c. Rifampicin
d. Pyrazinamide
Answer: c. Rifampicin
Description:Rifampicin enhances metabolism of oral contraceptives causing contraceptive failure.
8. OCPs can cause all; EXCEPT:
a. Mastalgia
b. Dysmenorrhea
c. Chloasma
d. Pyrazinamide
Answer: b. Dysmenorrhea
Description:Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often prescribed to help reduce dysmenorrhea, which is the medical term for painful menstrual cramps. OCPs can help alleviate menstrual pain by regulating the menstrual cycle and reducing the intensity and duration of menstrual bleeding. Therefore, dysmenorrhea is not a side effect of OCPs; rather, they are sometimes used to treat it. The other options mentioned (a. Mastalgia, c. Chloasma, d. Pyrazinamide) may be side effects or conditions associated with OCPs. For example, mastalgia refers to breast tenderness, which can be a side effect of OCPs for some women. Chloasma is a skin condition that can sometimes be exacerbated by OCP use, and pyrazinamide is a completely unrelated medication used to treat tuberculosis.
9. Mala-N contains:
a. Ethinyl estradiol 0.3 mg
b. Norethisterone 1 mg
c. D-nongestural 0.5 mg
d. D-nongestural 0.3 mg
Answer: b. Norethisterone 1 mg
Description:Mala-N is a combination oral contraceptive pill, and it typically contains norethisterone, a synthetic progestin, as one of its active ingredients. The specific formulation of oral contraceptives can vary, but in this case, Mala-N contains norethisterone at a dosage of 1 mg. Please note that the availability and composition of contraceptive pills can vary by region and brand, so it's important to consult with a healthcare provider or check the product label for precise information on the contraceptives available in your area.
10. Ergometrine is used in:
a. Postpartum hemorrhage
b. Induction of labor
c. Breast engorgement
d. Contraception
Answer: a. Postpartum hemorrhage
Description:Ergometrine, also known as ergonovine, is a medication commonly used to manage postpartum hemorrhage (excessive bleeding after childbirth). It helps to contract the uterine muscles, which can be effective in reducing bleeding in the postpartum period. It is not used for induction of labor, contraception, or managing breast engorgement.
11. Side effect of oral contraceptives are all; EXCEPT:
a. Irregular bleeding
b. Headache
c. Venous thrombosis
d. Increased risk of ovarian cancer.
Answer: d. Increased risk of ovarian cancer.
Description:Oral contraceptives (birth control pills) are associated with various side effects and potential risks, but there is evidence to suggest that they may actually reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. This is considered one of the potential benefits of using oral contraceptives. The other side effects listed (a. Irregular bleeding, b. Headache, c. Venous thrombosis) can be side effects or risks associated with oral contraceptives, and their occurrence can vary among individuals. However, an increased risk of ovarian cancer is not typically associated with oral contraceptive use; in fact, it may have a protective effect against ovarian cancer.
12. “Oral contraceptive pills†protect against:
a. Thrombosis
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Cancer cervix
d. Hepatocellular adenoma.
Answer: b. Ovarian cancer
Description:Oral contraceptive pills have been shown to provide a degree of protection against ovarian cancer. This is considered one of the potential benefits of using oral contraceptives. While they can have various effects on health, including some potential risks, they have been associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer in multiple studies. The other options listed (a. Thrombosis, c. Cancer cervix, d. Hepatocellular adenoma) are not typically associated with protection by oral contraceptive pills, and in some cases, their use may have associated risks.
13. Adverse effects of oral contraceptive pills include all; EXCEPT:
a. Swelling of ankles and feet
b. Tenderness of breast
c. Abdominal cramping.
d. Weight loss.
Answer: d. Weight loss.
Description:Weight loss is not typically considered an adverse effect of oral contraceptive pills (OCPs). In fact, some individuals may experience weight gain as a side effect of OCPs, though it's important to note that the effect on weight can vary among individuals. The other options listed (a. Swelling of ankles and feet, b. Tenderness of breast, c. Abdominal cramping) are potential side effects that can occur with the use of OCPs, although they may not be experienced by everyone, and their severity can vary.
14. Failure of oral contraceptives occur when used with any of these; EXCEPT:
a. Aspirin
b. Tetracycline.
c. Phenytoin
d. Rifampicin
Answer: a. Aspirin
Description:Failure of oral contraceptives can occur when they are used with certain medications that may interact with the effectiveness of the birth control pills. Aspirin is not typically associated with such interactions. However, medications like tetracycline, phenytoin, and rifampicin are known to potentially reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives and increase the risk of contraceptive failure. It's essential for individuals using oral contraceptives to be aware of potential drug interactions and consult with their healthcare provider if they are prescribed any medications that might interfere with the contraceptive's effectiveness.
15. The progesterone only emergency contraceptive pills act by all of the following; EXCEPT:
a. Altered cervical secretion
b. Inhibition of ovulation
c. Anti-implantation effect
d. Inhibition of LH secretion.
Answer: c. Anti-implantation effect
Description:Progesterone-only emergency contraceptive pills primarily work by altering cervical mucus secretion (option a) to make it more difficult for sperm to penetrate the cervix and reach the egg. They can also inhibit ovulation (option b) in some cases, which prevents the release of an egg from the ovary. Option d, inhibition of LH (luteinizing hormone) secretion, is also a possible mechanism of action, as it can affect the ovulation process. However, the concept of an "anti-implantation effect" is generally not a widely accepted mechanism of action for emergency contraceptive pills, including progesterone-only pills. These pills primarily aim to prevent fertilization rather than interfering with the implantation of a fertilized egg into the uterine lining.
16. By which of the following mechanism the ergometrine controls the postpartum hemorrhage?
a. By enhancing blood clotting activity
b. By increasing the tone of uterine muscles
c. By enhancing platelet aggregation
d. By stimulating vasoconstriction
Answer: b. By increasing the tone of uterine muscles
Description:Ergometrine (also known as ergonovine) is used to control postpartum hemorrhage by increasing the tone of uterine muscles. It helps the uterus contract more strongly, which can effectively reduce bleeding after childbirth by compressing the blood vessels in the uterine wall. This mechanism helps to prevent or manage excessive postpartum bleeding.
17. Which of the following drug is used to suppress premature labor?
a. Ritodrine
b. Clonidine
c. Oxytocin
d. Epinephrine
Answer: a. Ritodrine
Description:Ritodrine is a medication that is used to suppress premature labor (preterm labor). It is a beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist and can relax the uterine muscles, helping to delay or stop contractions and thereby prolonging pregnancy. This can be beneficial in cases where premature birth is a concern, as it provides more time for medical interventions to improve the baby's chances of survival and reduce the risk of complications associated with preterm birth.
18. Which of the following hormone is known as milk ejection hormone?
a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. Progesterone
d. Estrogen
Answer: b. Oxytocin
Description:Oxytocin is known as the "milk ejection hormone" or "letdown hormone." It plays a crucial role in the breastfeeding process by causing the muscles around the milk-producing mammary glands to contract, leading to the ejection or release of milk from the breast. Oxytocin is released in response to nipple stimulation and the suckling reflex of a nursing baby. Prolactin (option a) is another hormone involved in lactation and milk production, but oxytocin specifically controls milk ejection. Progesterone (option c) and estrogen (option d) are also involved in various aspects of the female reproductive system but are not primarily responsible for milk ejection.
19. A patient in the second stage of labor is given which of the following injections to improve uterine contractions?
a. Diazepam
b. Methergine
c. Phenergan
d. Oxytocin
Answer: d. Oxytocin
Description:Oxytocin mimics uterine contractions of normal labor. It used for antepartum induction or stimulation of labor.
20. The reason for deep IM injection of iron preparation is to:
a. Enhance absorption of the medication
b. Ensure higher bioavailability
c. Provide more even distribution of the drug
d. Prevent the drug from tissue irrigation
Answer: d. Prevent the drug from tissue irrigation
Description:The reason for deep intramuscular (IM) injection of iron preparations is to prevent the drug from causing tissue irritation. Iron preparations can be irritating to the surrounding tissues, and deep IM injection allows the medication to be absorbed slowly into the bloodstream from the muscle while minimizing the risk of local irritation or damage to superficial tissues. This method helps ensure that the medication is administered safely and effectively.
21. Which of the following vitamin in known as anti-sterility vitamin?
a. Thiamine
b. Niacin
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
Answer: d. Vitamin K
Description:Vitamin K is sometimes referred to as the "anti-sterility" vitamin because it plays a crucial role in blood clotting, which is essential for preventing excessive bleeding, including bleeding during childbirth. It helps in the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. While the term "anti-sterility" is not commonly used today, historically, it was associated with vitamin K due to its importance in preventing hemorrhage, which can be a life-threatening complication during pregnancy and childbirth.
22. Which of the following vitamin is a water soluble vitamin?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
Answer: b. Vitamin C
Description:Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin, which means it dissolves in water and is not stored in the body to a significant extent. Instead, it is regularly excreted in urine, and people need to consume it regularly in their diet to maintain adequate levels. Water-soluble vitamins, such as vitamin C and the B vitamins, are not stored in the body for long periods, and any excess is typically eliminated through urine. In contrast, fat-soluble vitamins like vitamin A (option a), vitamin D (option c), and vitamin K (option d) can be stored in the body's fat tissues.
23. The daily recommended dietary allowances (RDAs) of thiamine is adult men is:
a. 1.2 mg
b. 3.0 mg
c. 5.0 mg
d. 7.5 mg
Answer: a. 1.2 mg
Description:The recommended daily amount of thiamine for adult men is 1.2 milligrams and for adult women is 1.1 milligrams.
24. Excessive intake of Vitamin D will leads to:
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Urinary retention
d. Hypophosphatemia
Answer: a. Hypercalcemia
Description:Excessive intake of Vitamin D can lead to hypercalcemia, which is an abnormally high level of calcium in the blood. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium from the digestive tract, and excessive amounts of Vitamin D can lead to an excessive absorption of calcium. This can result in various symptoms and complications related to high calcium levels, including kidney stones, gastrointestinal issues, and damage to the kidneys, bones, and other organs.
25. What is the dose of prophylactic vitamin given at the age of 9 months:
a. 60,000 IU
b. 1,00,000 IU
c. 1,50,000 IU
d. 2, 00, 000 IU
Answer: b. 1,00,000 IU
Description:Prophylactic vitamin D supplementation at the age of 9 months typically involves a dose of 100,000 IU of vitamin D. This dose may vary by region and healthcare guidelines, so it's essential to follow the specific recommendations provided by a healthcare provider or the relevant health authorities in your area. Vitamin D supplementation is often given to infants and young children to help ensure they receive adequate amounts of this essential vitamin for healthy bone development.
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