Courses
Join now
NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 206
“ Your score is /25 ”
0
25
Show Answer
1. World Health Organization (WHO) recommends initiation of folic acid supplementation as early possible in the pregnancy. What is the WHO recommended daily dose of folic acid supplementation in pregnant woman?
a. 100 mcg
b. 200 mcg
c. 400 mcg
d. 600 mcg
Answer: c. 400 mcg
Description:The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends a daily dose of 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid supplementation for pregnant women to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in the developing fetus. This supplementation is typically started before conception and continued throughout the early stages of pregnancy.
2. Which of the following antimalarial drug is safe during pregnancy?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Quinine
c. Chloroquine
d. Primaquine
Answer: c. Chloroquine
Description:Chloroquine or hydroxychloroquine are considered safe to use in all trimesters of pregnancy. Chloramphenicol is not an antimalarial drug. Quinine and primaquine are avoided during pregnancy.
3. Drug of choice for epilepsy in pregnancy is:
a. Lamotrigine
b. Sodium valproate
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Phenytoin
Answer: a. Lamotrigine
Description:Lamotrigine is generally considered the preferred choice for the treatment of epilepsy in pregnancy because it has a relatively favorable safety profile compared to some other antiepileptic drugs. Sodium valproate (option b) is not usually recommended during pregnancy due to its known risk of birth defects. Phenobarbitone (option c) and phenytoin (option d) may also have potential risks during pregnancy and are often considered as alternative options if lamotrigine is not effective or well-tolerated. However, the choice of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider who can assess the individual's specific situation and provide personalized guidance.
4. A client is receiving IV calcium gluconate for pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). Plan of care throughout injection of the drug must include:
a. ECG monitoring
b. CVP readings
c. Ventilator assistance
d. Continuous CPR
Answer: a. ECG monitoring
Description:ECG monitoring is required when calcium is administered by intravenous injection because the potential side effects occ calcium gluconate administration is cardiac arrest.
5. Drug of choice of hypertension in pregnancy is:
a. Methyldopa
b. Thiazide
c. Nifedipine
d. Labetalol
Answer: a. Methyldopa
Description:Methyldopa is considered one of the preferred drugs for treating hypertension during pregnancy. It has a long history of use and is generally considered safe for both the mother and the developing fetus. Other options like nifedipine (option c) and labetalol (option d) are also commonly used and can be effective in managing hypertension during pregnancy, but the choice of medication should be made by a healthcare provider based on the individual patient's specific circumstances and needs. Thiazide diuretics (option b) are generally not the first-line choice for hypertension in pregnancy.
6. Which of the following action is exerted by inotropic agent?
a. Increase heart rate
b. Decrease afterload
c. Increase ICP
d. Increase force of contraction.
Answer: d. Increase force of contraction.
Description:Inotropic agents are medications or substances that affect the force of contraction of the heart muscle (myocardium). They are used to increase the strength of myocardial contractions, which can improve the heart's pumping ability. This increase in contractility is the primary action of inotropic agents. The other options listed (a. Increase heart rate, b. Decrease afterload, c. Increase ICP) are not the primary actions associated with inotropic agents.
7. What is the outcome if the nitrates are administered early to the client with acute myocardial infarction?
a. Reduced mortality
b. Reduced morbidity
c. Bradycardia
d. Hypertension
Answer: a. Reduced mortality
Description:Research evidences suggest that the nitrate administration early into the acute MI attack results in reduced mortality, size of infarct and infarct extension. Reduced morbidity is not applicable as morbidity already occurred. Administration of nitrates results in hypotension and a likely tachycardia.
8. Which of the following antidote is used to heparin to control bleeding related to heparin overdose?
a. Vitamin K
b. Protamine sulphate
c. Fibrinogen
d. Naproxen.
Answer: b. Protamine sulphate
Description:Protamine sulfate is the antidote used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin in cases of heparin overdose or to control bleeding related to heparin therapy. It works by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant activity, helping to restore normal blood clotting. Vitamin K (option a) is used as an antidote for warfarin, not heparin. Fibrinogen (option c) is not an antidote but rather a clotting factor, and naproxen (option d) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and is not used as an antidote for heparin overdose.
9. The most effective benzodiazepine for treating status epilepticus and is the treatment of choice for controlling seizures acutely?
a. Nitrazepam
b. Oxazepam
c. Flurazepam
d. Lorazepam
Answer: d. Lorazepam
Description:Lorazepam is often considered the treatment of choice for controlling seizures acutely, particularly in cases of status epilepticus. It is a rapidly acting benzodiazepine that can be administered intravenously to quickly terminate prolonged or recurrent seizures. Lorazepam is preferred over other benzodiazepines like nitrazepam, oxazepam, or flurazepam for the management of status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures.
10. The dilution required for intravenous administration of adrenaline for anaphylactic shock in an adult patient is:
a. 1: 100
b. 1: 1000
c. 1: 10,000
d. 1: 100,000
Answer: c. 1: 10,000
Description:For intravenous administration of adrenaline (epinephrine) to treat anaphylactic shock in an adult patient, a common dilution ratio is 1:10,000. This means that 1 part of adrenaline is mixed with 10,000 parts of diluent (usually saline) to achieve the appropriate concentration for intravenous use. This diluted solution is administered carefully under medical supervision to address the life-threatening symptoms of anaphylactic shock. Different concentrations and ratios may be used in various medical settings, so it's important to follow the specific instructions provided by a healthcare provider or medical protocol.
11. Intervention for a patient who has swallowed an acid includes all of the following; EXCEPT:
a. Stimulation of vomiting
b. Aspirating secretions from the pharynx if respiration are affected
c. Neutralizing the chemical with alkaline solution
d. Washing the esophagus with large volumes of water via gastric lavage.
Answer: a. Stimulation of vomiting
Description:In the case of a patient who has swallowed an acid, inducing vomiting is generally not recommended. In fact, inducing vomiting can potentially make the situation worse, as it may lead to further damage to the esophagus and mouth due to the corrosive nature of the acid. The other options listed (b. Aspirating secretions from the pharynx if respiration is affected, c. Neutralizing the chemical with an alkaline solution, d. Washing the esophagus with large volumes of water via gastric lavage) are appropriate measures in managing acid ingestion and minimizing potential harm. It's important to seek immediate medical attention for anyone who has ingested a corrosive substance like acid.
12. The drug administered during acute anaphylactic reaction is:
a. Adrenaline
b. Aminophylline
c. Atropine
d. Furosemide
Answer: a. Adrenaline
Description:Injection of epinephrine (adrenaline) is the first and medication of choice for anaphylaxis as recommended in all anaphylaxis guidelines. Adrenaline helps to relieve the symptoms of anaphylaxis by causing vasoconstriction, and opening up airways. This prevents the blood pressure from dropping and makes breathing easier.
13. Which of the following parameter is the most reliable indicator of adequate IV infusion?
a. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
b. Normal skin turgor
c. Pulse rate-70-80/m
d. Urine output of 30 mL/h
Answer: d. Urine output of 30 mL/h
Description:Urine output is one of the most reliable indicators of adequate IV (intravenous) infusion and overall hydration status. A urine output of at least 30 mL per hour is often used as a general guideline to ensure that the body is receiving an adequate volume of fluids. Monitoring urine output helps assess renal function and hydration and can be a crucial parameter in managing IV fluids for patients. While the other parameters listed (a. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, b. Normal skin turgor, c. Pulse rate-70-80/min) can provide valuable information about a patient's condition, they are not as directly related to the assessment of IV fluid adequacy as urine output.
14. Deficiency of which of the following cation may causes amphotericin B toxicity when the drug is administered?
a. Magnesium
b. Calcium
c. Sodium
d. Potassium
Answer: d. Potassium
Description:If amphotericin B is administered when the patient is hypokalemic, it may cause toxicity of amphotericin B.
15. Which of the following drugs is not a plasma expander?
a. Dextran
b. Mannitol
c. Human albumin
d. Hexa starch
Answer: b. Mannitol
Description:Dextran, Human albumin and Hexa starch are plasma expanders. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic.
16. Plasma expanders are used in:
a. Severe anemia
b. Circulatory shock
c. Chronic renal failure
d. Congestive heart failure.
Answer: b. Circulatory shock
Description:Plasma expanders are used in circulatory shocks. Palms volume expanders increase the oncotic pressure in the intravascular space.
17. Antidote for overdose of Warfarin is:
a. Protamine sulfate
b. Heparin
c. Atropine sulfate e
d. Vitamin K
Answer: d. Vitamin K
Description:Vitamin K is an antidote of warfarin. Protamine sulfate is an antidote to heparin. Atropine sulfate is an anti-cholinergic agent.
18. Antidote for organophosphorus poisoning is:
a. D-Penicillamine
b. Atropine
c. Magnesium sulfate e
d. Physostigmine
Answer: b. Atropine
Description:Atropine is used to counteract the toxic effects of organophosphorus compounds by blocking the excessive stimulation of cholinergic receptors caused by these compounds. It helps alleviate symptoms such as excessive salivation, muscle twitching, and respiratory distress. It is a critical component of the treatment for organophosphorus poisoning, although other measures may also be necessary depending on the severity of the poisoning.
19. Antidote for Heparin is:
a. Vitamin K
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Vitamin
d. Coumadin
Answer: b. Protamine sulfate
Description:Protamine sulfate is an antidote to heparin which reverses the anticoagulant effects of heparin by binding to it. Dose: 1.0-1.5 mg per 100 units of heparin that had been administered in last 4 hours. PTT should be monitored at 5-15 minutes after dose then 2-8 hours afterward.
20. The antidote for paracetamol poisoning is:
a. Atropine
b. Naloxone
c. Vitamin K
d. N-Acetylcysteine.
Answer: d. N-Acetylcysteine.
Description:N-Acetylcysteine is an antidote for paracetamol poisoning.
21. Antidote for benzodiazepines:
a. Flumazenil
b. N-acetylcysteine
c. Naloxone
d. Atropine
Answer: a. Flumazenil
Description:Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepines. It is the drug of choice for benzodiazepine overdose/poisoning.
22. The antidote to warfarin is:
a. Heparin
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin B12
d. Iron
Answer: b. Vitamin K
Description:Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and if a person taking warfarin experiences excessive bleeding or hemorrhage due to the medication, administering vitamin K can help reverse its anticoagulant effects and promote blood clotting. The use of vitamin K as an antidote is a common and effective strategy in managing warfarin-related bleeding or over-anticoagulation.
23. The antidote of organophosphorus poisoning is:
a. Adrenaline
b. Atropine
c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Dopamine
Answer: b. Atropine
Description:Atropine is used to counteract the toxic effects of organophosphorus compounds by blocking the excessive stimulation of cholinergic receptors caused by these compounds. It helps alleviate symptoms such as excessive salivation, muscle twitching, and respiratory distress. It is a critical component of the treatment for organophosphorus poisoning, although other measures may also be necessary depending on the severity of the poisoning.
24. The antidote of heparin is:
a. Coumarin
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Vitamin K
d. Aspirin
Answer: b. Protamine sulfate
Description:Protamine sulfate is used as the antidote for heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication, and if a person receiving heparin experiences excessive bleeding or needs to reverse its anticoagulant effects quickly, protamine sulfate can be administered to neutralize heparin's anticoagulant activity. This is especially important in situations where there is a risk of severe bleeding due to heparin.
25. Antidote for organophosphorus poisoning is:
a. Atropine
b. Neostigmine
c. Succinylcholine
d. D-tubocurarine.
Answer: a. Atropine
Description:Atropine is the antidote used to counteract the toxic effects of organophosphorus poisoning. Organophosphorus compounds inhibit acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. By inhibiting this enzyme, organophosphorus compounds lead to excessive stimulation of cholinergic receptors, causing symptoms such as excessive salivation, sweating, muscle twitching, and more severe effects like respiratory distress and paralysis. Atropine works by blocking the effects of excess acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in the body. This helps counteract the cholinergic overstimulation and alleviate some of the symptoms associated with organophosphorus poisoning. It does not reverse the toxic effects entirely but is a crucial part of the treatment.
Back
Please Answer Minimum Five Questions