NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 209
“ Your score is /25 ”
0
25
Show Answer
1. Gynecomastia is one of the side effect of:
a. Spironolactone
b. Rifampicin
c. Penicillin
d. Bumetanide
Answer: a. Spironolactone
Description:Spironolactone (potassium sparing diuretics) causes gynecomastia as a side effect.
2. In patient with chronic renal failures, all of the following drugs likely to causes raise in potassium level; EXCEPT:
a. ACE inhibitors
b. Beta blockers
c. Lasix (Furosemide)
d. Spironolactone
Answer: c. Lasix (Furosemide)
Description:Lasix (furosemide) causes balanced excretion of potassium through kidney hence, the chances of causing hyperkalemia is less. Spironolactone is a potassium sparing diuretic hence, retains potassium
3. Side effect of thiazides may include:
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperuricemia
c. Hyperglycemia
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:Thiazide diuretics can indeed have several side effects, and all of the options listed (a. Hypokalemia, b. Hyperuricemia, c. Hyperglycemia) are potential side effects of thiazide use. So, the correct answer is d. All of these. Here's a brief explanation of each side effect: a. Hypokalemia: Thiazides can lead to low levels of potassium in the blood, which is known as hypokalemia. b. Hyperuricemia: Thiazide diuretics can increase the levels of uric acid in the blood, which may lead to hyperuricemia. High uric acid levels are associated with conditions like gout. c. Hyperglycemia: Thiazides can sometimes cause elevated blood sugar levels, leading to hyperglycemia. This can be a concern for individuals with diabetes or those at risk of developing diabetes. It's essential to use thiazide diuretics under the supervision of a healthcare professional who can monitor for these potential side effects and adjust treatment as needed.
4. Side effect of diuretic administration includes all; EXCEPT:
a. Hypotension
b. Postural hypotension
c. Dehydration
d. Hypernatremia
Answer: d. Hypernatremia
Description:Side effects of diuretic administration can include various issues, but one side effect that is NOT typically associated with diuretics is hypernatremia. So, the correct answer is d. Hypernatremia.
5. Use of aspirin in the children with viral disease is associated with:
a. Hematuria
b. Reye’s syndrome
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Renal tubular acidosis.
Answer: b. Reye’s syndrome
Description:Reye’s syndrome seems to be triggered by using aspirin to treat a viral illness, or infection particularly flu (influenza and chicken pox-in children and teenagers who have an underlying fatty acid oxidation.
6. Patient who is allergic to intravenous contrast media are also usually allergic to:
a. Eggs
b. Latex
c. Milk
d. Shellfish
Answer: d. Shellfish
Description:Shellfish and constrict media both contains iodine. Patients are frequently asked about iodine or seafood (shellfish) allergy before IV contrast media is injected. Person who is allergic to shellfish is likely to be allergic to contrast media.
7. Early features of aspirin poisoning is/are:
a. Throbbing headache
b. Rash
c. Ringing sensation in ear
d. Metabolic acidosis.
Answer: c. Ringing sensation in ear
Description:The early features of aspirin poisoning can vary, but one common early symptom is a ringing sensation in the ears, which is known as tinnitus. So, the correct answer is c. Ringing sensation in the ear.
8. Which of the following drug increases that risk of gastrointestinal bleeding:
a. Aspirin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Tranexamic acid
d. Dextran
Answer: a. Aspirin
Description:Among the options listed, aspirin (option a) is known to increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the stomach lining and lead to gastrointestinal bleeding or ulcers, especially when used in high doses or over a prolonged period. The other options, acetaminophen (option b), tranexamic acid (option c), and dextran (option d), are not typically associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. However, it's essential to use any medication as directed by a healthcare professional and to be aware of potential side effects. If you have concerns about medications or their side effects, it's best to consult with a healthcare provider.
9. Which of the following antimalarial drug is not safe to prescribe to a pregnant woman?
a. Chloroquine
b. Primaquine
c. Quinine
d. Quinidine
Answer: b. Primaquine
Description:Primaquine (option b) is not safe to prescribe to a pregnant woman. Primaquine is known to be harmful to the developing fetus and should be avoided during pregnancy. It can cause significant harm to the baby, including a risk of birth defects and other adverse effects. Chloroquine (option a), quinine (option c), and quinidine (option d) have been used in pregnant women with malaria under the supervision of healthcare professionals when the benefits outweigh the potential risks. However, the safety of these medications during pregnancy may vary depending on the specific circumstances, and they should only be prescribed after careful consideration of the risks and benefits by a healthcare provider.
10. Which of the following anti tubercular drugs is contraindicated in a pregnant woman?
a. Pyrazinamide
b. Isoniazid
c. Rifampicin
d. Streptomycin
Answer: c. Rifampicin
Description:Streptomycin can cause fetal harm (8th cranial nerve damage to fetus) when administered to a pregnant women. So use of streptomycin during pregnancy is absolutely contraindicated.
11. Which of the following drug is not contraindicated in lactating mother.
a. Bromocriptine
b. Amiodarone
c. Ibuprofen
d. Retinoids
Answer: c. Ibuprofen
Description:Bromocriptine inhibits lactation. Amiodarone has along half-life, iodine containing molecule, and may affect thyroid function in infant. Retinoids are potential for serious adverse effects. Ibuprofen is safe during lactation.
12. Consumption of which of the following drugs by a mother during pregnancy may causes phocomelia to the fetus?
a. Tetracycline
b. Thalidomide
c. Warfarin
d. Doxycycline
Answer: b. Thalidomide
Description:Even a single dose of thalidomide taken during pregnancy can causes severe birth defects including phocomelia or death of the unborn baby. Phocomelia is a birth defect in which of the hands and feet are attached to abbreviated arms and legs.
13. Which of the following drug is contraindicated is pregnancy
a. ACE inhibitors
b. Beta blockers
c. Heparin
d. Hydralazine
Answer: a. ACE inhibitors
Description:ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential for teratogenicity.
14. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in pregnancy?
a. Methyl dopa
b. Clonidine
c. Amlodipine
d. Enalapril
Answer: d. Enalapril
Description:Diuretic like ACEI and ARB inhibitors are teratogenic, hence contraindicated in pregnancy.
15. International Yoga day is celebrated on:
a. April 7
b. May 21
c. June 21
d. June 25
Answer: c. June 21
Description:International Yoga Day is celebrated on June 21st.
16. The theme of the international Yoga day 2021 is:
a. Yoga for wellness
b. Yoga for health
c. Yoga at home
d. Yoga for Covid
Answer: a. Yoga for wellness
Description:The theme of international yoga day 2021 is yoga for wellness. “Yoga for Health-Yoga at Home†was theme for the year 2020.
17. A medicine may be called Homeopathic if it is:
a. Included in Homeopathic Materia medica
b. Included in Indian pharmacopeia
c. Prepared according to homeopathic pharmacopoeia.
d. Based on the principle of similia
Answer: c. Prepared according to homeopathic pharmacopoeia.
Description:A medicine may be called homeopathic if it is prepared according to the guidelines and principles outlined in homeopathic pharmacopoeia. Homeopathic remedies are typically prepared through a process of serial dilution and succussion (vigorous shaking) and are based on the principle of "similia similibus curentur," which means "like cures like." These remedies are widely used in homeopathic medicine for various health conditions.
18. One grain powder is equal to:
a. 30 mg
b. 65 mg
c. 90 mg
d. 100 mg
Answer: b. 65 mg
Description:One grain is equal to approximately 65 milligrams. So, the correct answer is: b. 65 mg
19. A mother tincture refers to a:
a. An alcoholic solution
b. An aqueous solution
c. Dilatation of drug
d. Aquo-Alcoholic extract
Answer: d. Aquo-Alcoholic extract
Description:A mother tincture refers to an aquo-alcoholic extract.
20. …………..is used as dusting powder in surgical gloves:
a. Talk powder
b. Boric acid powder
c. Zinc powder
d. Lactulose powder
Answer: b. Boric acid powder
Description:Boric acid powder is used as a dusting powder in surgical gloves. So, the correct answer is: b. Boric acid powder
21. Which of the following drugs induces sleep?
a. Hypnotics
b. Analgesics
c. Antipyretics
d. Antihistamines
Answer: a. Hypnotics
Description:The drugs that induce sleep are typically classified as "Hypnotics." So, the correct answer is: a. Hypnotics
22. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is by using:
a. Edrophonium
b. Neostigmine
c. Succinylcholine (Sch)
d. Atropine
Answer: a. Edrophonium
Description:The diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is often confirmed using the edrophonium test. So, the correct answer is: a. Edrophonium
23. Iron is stored in:
a. RBC
b. Reticuloendothelial system
c. Plasma
d. All of the above.
Answer: b. Reticuloendothelial system
Description:Iron is primarily stored in the reticuloendothelial system, which includes the liver, spleen, and bone marrow.
24. Hemodialysis is useful in all of the following; EXCEPT:
a. Barbiturate poisoning
b. Methanol poisoning
c. Salicylate poisoning
d. Digoxin poisoning
Answer: d. Digoxin poisoning
Description:Hemodialysis is useful in the treatment of various poisonings, including barbiturate poisoning (option a), methanol poisoning (option b), and salicylate poisoning (option c). However, it is generally not effective in treating poisoning with drugs like digoxin (option d).
25. The following is the most commonly used embedding agent:
a. Paraffin wax
b. Formaldehyde
c. Glutaraldehyde
d. Resins
Answer: a. Paraffin wax
Description:Paraffin wax (option a) is the most commonly used embedding agent in histology and pathology laboratories for the preparation of tissue samples for microscopic examination. It is used to embed or encase tissue specimens before sectioning and staining.
Back
Please Answer Minimum Five Questions