NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 221
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1. Scabies is a/an
a. Non-communicable disease
b. Contagious disease
c. Bacterial infection
d. Fungal infection
Answer: b. Contagious disease
Description:Scabies is a contagious (communicable) disease caused by itch mite. It is capable of spreading rapidly from one person to another by contact or close proximity.
2. The other name of pertussis is:
a. Rubella
b. Whooping cough
c. Rubeola
d. Diphtheria
Answer: b. Whooping cough
Description:The other name for pertussis is "Whooping cough," so the correct answer is option b.
3. Symmetrical unilocular rashes firstly appearing from trunk and then on face, arms and legs are characteristics of……………disease:
a. Smallpox
b. Measles
c. Chicken pox
d. Rubella
Answer: c. Chicken pox
Description:Chicken pox caused by caused by varicella zoster virus presents with clinical features of dew drops kind rashes the firstly appear on trunk and then come on face, arms and legs.
4. Boiling water helps in killing all organisms; EXCEPT:
a. Fungi
b. Bacteria
c. Protozoa
d. Spores
Answer: d. Spores
Description:Boiling water is an effective way to kill many types of organisms, such as bacteria, fungi, and protozoa, making it safer to drink. However, it may not kill spores, which are tough, resistant structures formed by certain microorganisms. So, the correct answer is option d: "Spores." Boiling water may not always eliminate spores, and additional measures may be needed to ensure their destruction.
5. The last known natural case of smallpox was reported in the world in:
a. 1977
b. 1978
c. 1979
d. 1980
Answer: a. 1977
Description:The last known natural case of smallpox in the world was reported in 1977. So, the correct answer is option a: "1977."
6. Mumps presents with a clinical feature of:
a. Fever with enlargement of thyroid glands
b. Fever with non supportive enlargement of one or both parotid glands
c. Fever with supportive enlargement of parotid glands
d. Fever, cough and enlargement of submandibular glands.
Answer: b. Fever with non supportive enlargement of one or both parotid glands
Description:Mumps typically presents with a clinical feature of: b. Fever with non-supportive enlargement of one or both parotid glands. This means that when someone has mumps, they often develop a fever and experience swelling of one or both parotid glands, which are located in the cheeks and jaw area. So, the correct answer is option b.
7. Koplik’s spots are seen in:
a. Rubella
b. Measles
c. Chikungunya
d. Chicken pox
Answer: b. Measles
Description:Koplik's spots are small white or bluish-white spots that appear inside the mouth and are a distinctive sign of measles, a contagious viral infection. So, the correct answer is option b, Measles.
8. Rabies free zone in India is:
a. Goa
b. Lakshadweep
c. Arunachal Pradesh
d. Tamil Nadu
Answer: b. Lakshadweep
Description:The rabies-free zone in India is Lakshadweep, which means that there have been no reported cases of rabies in this region.
9. Among the following identify the most common complication associated in:
a. Aseptic meningitis
b. Mastitis
c. Orchiditis
d. Oophoritis
Answer: a. Aseptic meningitis
Description:Aseptic meningitis is one of the most common complications caused by mumps.
10. International Health Regulation is subjected to:
a. Plague
b. Yellow fever
c. Cholera
d. All of these
Answer: d. All of these
Description:All of the mentioned disease are subjected to International Health Regulation.
11. Schick’s test is used to diagnose.
a. Diphtheria
b. Pertussis
c. Measles
d. Mumps
Answer: a. Diphtheria
Description:The Schick's test is used to diagnose: a. Diphtheria. So, the correct answer is option a, Diphtheria.
12. Most common complication associated with chicken pox in children:
a. Secondary bacterial infection
b. Meningitis
c. Orchitis
d. Otitis media
Answer: a. Secondary bacterial infection
Description:Secondary bacterial infection is the most common complication associated with chicken pox in children
13. Complications of chicken pox include:
a. Rey’s syndrome
b. Pneumonia
c. Cerebellar ataxia
d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
Description:Pneumonic used for complication associated with chicken pox include RAPE. R = Rey’s syndrome. A = Acute cerebellar ataxia. P = Pneumonia. E = Encephalitis.
14. Drug of choice for cholera is:
a. Tetracycline
b. Penicillin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Co-trimoxazole
Answer: a. Tetracycline
Description:The drug of choice for treating cholera is: a. Tetracycline. This means that tetracycline is the preferred medication to use in the treatment of cholera, a bacterial infection that causes severe diarrhea and dehydration. So, the correct answer is option a.
15. Congenital rubella is diagnosed in infant with the help of……….antibodies in infant
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgA
Answer: a. IgM
Description:When congenital rubella is suspected, testing for IgM antibodies in the infant's blood can help confirm the diagnosis. IgM antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to a recent rubella infection, making them a useful marker for diagnosing the disease in newborns. So, the correct answer is option a.
16. Chemoprophylaxis of choice in case of meningococcal meningitis is:
a. Chloroquine
b. Tetracycline
c. Rifampicin
d. Penicillin
Answer: c. Rifampicin
Description:The chemoprophylaxis of choice in the case of meningococcal meningitis is: c. Rifampicin. Rifampicin is commonly used for prophylaxis in close contacts of individuals with meningococcal meningitis to prevent the spread of the bacteria. So, the correct answer is option c.
17. Infectivity of whooping cough is during:
a. During the entire period of illness
b. After the onset of whoop
c. 10 days before and 10 days after the onset of whoop
d. None of the above.
Answer: c. 10 days before and 10 days after the onset of whoop
Description:The infectivity of whooping cough (pertussis) is during: c. 10 days before and 10 days after the onset of whoop. This means that individuals with whooping cough can be contagious for a period of approximately 10 days before the characteristic whooping sound develops and continues to be contagious for about 10 days after the onset of the whoop. So, the correct answer is option c.
18. Diphtheria carrier is identified through
a. Throat swab culture
b. Ziehl-Nelsen stain.
c. Gram stain
d. Albert stain
Answer: a. Throat swab culture
Description:Swab taken from nose and throat is subjected to culture and then identify the carrier in diphtheria.
19. WHO declared global eradication of smallpox on:
a. 26th October 1977
b. 5th July 1975
c. 17 may 1975
d. 8th may 1980
Answer: d. 8th may 1980
Description:The WHO (World Health Organization) declared the global eradication of smallpox on: d. 8th May 1980. So, the correct answer is option d.
20. Incubation period of chicken pox ranges from:
a. 20-25 days
b. 30-40 days
c. 6-10 days
d. 14-16 days
Answer: d. 14-16 days
Description:The incubation period of chickenpox (varicella) ranges from: d. 14-16 days. So, the correct answer is option d.
21. Causative agent of mumps is:
a. Bordetella
b. Paramyxovirus
c. Toga virus
d. H. influenza
Answer: b. Paramyxovirus
Description:The causative agent of mumps is: b. Paramyxovirus. Mumps is primarily caused by a virus belonging to the Paramyxoviridae family. This virus, known as the mumps virus, leads to the characteristic swelling of the salivary glands and other symptoms associated with mumps. So, the correct answer is option b, Paramyxovirus.
22. Most common cause of post meals death:
a. SSPE
b. RTI
c. Weakness
d. Diarrhea
Answer: b. RTI
Description:The most common cause of post-meal deaths is: b. RTI (Respiratory Tract Infection). Respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia or bronchitis, can lead to severe complications, especially in vulnerable individuals, and may sometimes result in post-meal deaths. So, the correct answer is option b, RTI.
23. Congenital varicella is related with which disease?
a. Mumps
b. Germen measles
c. Measles
d. Chicken pox
Answer: d. Chicken pox
Description:Congenital varicella is related to: d. Chickenpox. Congenital varicella occurs when a pregnant woman becomes infected with the varicella-zoster virus (which causes chickenpox) during pregnancy, and the virus can affect the developing fetus, leading to congenital varicella syndrome. So, the correct answer is option d, Chickenpox.
24. The procedure of ‘Quarantine’ was introduced to protect against importance of:
a. Yellow fever
b. Cholera
c. Leprosy
d. Plague
Answer: d. Plague
Description:The procedure of 'Quarantine' was introduced to protect against the spread and importance of: d. Plague. Quarantine measures were historically implemented to isolate and monitor individuals who might have been exposed to contagious diseases like the plague to prevent its spread. So, the correct answer is option d, Plague.
25. Scarlet fever is caused by
a. S. pyogenes
b. Gonococci
c. Meningococci
d. S. typhi
Answer: a. S. pyogenes
Description:Scarlet fever is caused by: a. Streptococcus pyogenes (S. pyogenes). So, the correct answer is option a, S. pyogenes.
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