NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 223
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1. ‘Five clean practices’ under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus include all; EXCEPT:
a. Clean surface for delivery
b. Clean hand of attendant
c. New blade for cutting the cord.
d. Clean airway
Answer: d. Clean airway
Description:The "Five clean practices" under strategies for the elimination of neonatal tetanus include: a. Clean surface for delivery b. Clean hand of attendant c. New blade for cutting the cord d. Clean cord care e. Clean perineum So, "Clean airway" is not one of the five clean practices specifically mentioned for the elimination of neonatal tetanus.
2. Which of the following is the major risk factor of candidiasis of oral cavity?
a. Poor personal hygiene
b. Alcoholism
c. Thiamine deficiency
d. Smoking
Answer: a. Poor personal hygiene
Description:The major risk factor for candidiasis of the oral cavity is: a. Poor personal hygiene Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by Candida yeast. When a person has poor personal hygiene, they may not clean their mouth properly, leading to an overgrowth of Candida in the oral cavity, which can result in candidiasis. Proper oral hygiene, such as regular brushing and cleaning of the mouth, can help prevent this condition.
3. Which of the following terms refers to a fungal infection of foot?
a. Tinea corporis
b. Tinea pedis
c. Tinea capitis
d. Tinea cruris
Answer: b. Tinea pedis
Description:The term that refers to a fungal infection of the foot is: b. Tinea pedis Tinea pedis is commonly known as athlete's foot and is a fungal infection that affects the skin of the feet.
4. Mode of spread of whooping cough is
a. Direct contact
b. Droplet infection
c. Fomite
d. Water borne
Answer: b. Droplet infection
Description:Whooping cough is transmitted from one person to another by droplets of moisture expelled from the upper respiratory tract through coughing and sneezing.
5. The maximum size of droplet nuclei that can be inhaled into alveoli of lungs is:
a. 1-2 microns
b. 1-5 microns
c. 5-7 microns
d. 7-10 microns
Answer: b. 1-5 microns
Description:Vehicle of airborne respiratory disease transmission is droplet. 1-5 micron is the size of nuclei that can be inhaled into alveoli of lung easily
6. Amebiasis is transmitted through……route:
a. Feco-oral
b. Parenteral
c. Vector borne
d. Air borne
Answer: a. Feco-oral
Description:Amebiasis is parasitic infection of the intestines caused by the protozoan E.histolytica. it is usually transmitted by the fecal-oral route, but it can also be transmitted indirectly through contact with contaminated hands.
7. Disease which are transmitted by water and food are called as:
a. Vector borne.
b. Air borne.
c. Fomite borne.
d. Vehicle borne.
Answer: d. Vehicle borne.
Description:Disease transmitted via food and water is called as vehicle borne.
8. Which one of the following diseases is not transmitted mainly by Fecal-oral route?
a. Enteric fever
b. Measles
c. Cholera
d. Hepatitis A
Answer: b. Measles
Description:The disease that is not primarily transmitted by the fecal-oral route is: b. Measles Measles is mainly transmitted through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes, rather than through the fecal-oral route. The other options (a. Enteric fever, c. Cholera, and d. Hepatitis A) are diseases that are typically transmitted through contaminated food, water, or fecal matter.
9. Mode of spread of polio infection is:
a. Through vectors
b. Droplet infection
c. Fecal-oral route
d. Through blood
Answer: c. Fecal-oral route
Description:The mode of spread of polio infection is: c. Fecal-oral route Polio is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, which means the virus is usually spread when a person comes into contact with the feces (stool) of an infected person and then ingests the virus. This can happen through contaminated food, water, or surfaces.
10. Plague is transmitted by:
a. Hard tick
b. Soft tick
c. Rat flea
d. Louse
Answer: c. Rat flea
Description:Plague is transmitted by: c. Rat flea The transmission of the plague bacterium (Yersinia pestis) to humans is most commonly carried out by fleas that infest rodents, particularly rat fleas. These infected fleas can bite humans and transmit the bacteria, leading to the transmission of the plague.
11. Commonest mode of transmission of AIDS in India is:
a. Transplacental/mother to child
b. Use of unsterile syringes and needles
c. Sexual
d. Blood transfusion
Answer: c. Sexual
Description:The commonest mode of transmission of AIDS in India, as in many other parts of the world, is: c. Sexual transmission HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is most commonly transmitted through unprotected sexual intercourse with an infected person. While other modes of transmission like mother-to-child transmission, use of unsterile syringes and needles, and blood transfusions can also lead to HIV transmission, sexual transmission remains the most prevalent mode of HIV transmission in India and globally.
12. Chikungunya virus is transmitted through:
a. Aedes mosquito
b. Chikungunya mosquito
c. Culex mosquito
d. Marsh mosquito
Answer: a. Aedes mosquito
Description:Chikungunya virus is primarily transmitted through: a. Aedes mosquito The primary vector for the Chikungunya virus is the Aedes mosquito, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus. These mosquitoes can transmit the virus when they bite an infected person and then bite another person, thereby transmitting the virus from one individual to another.
13. Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by:
a. Mosquito
b. Tick
c. Mite
d. Rat flea
Answer: a. Mosquito
Description:Japanese encephalitis is primarily transmitted by: a. Mosquitoes Japanese encephalitis virus is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes, primarily the Culex species of mosquitoes. These mosquitoes can carry the virus from infected animals, such as pigs and birds, to humans when they feed on blood.
14. Chikungunya is transmitted by:
a. Aedes
b. Culex
c. Mansonoides
d. Anopheles
Answer: a. Aedes
Description:Chikungunya is primarily transmitted by: a. Aedes mosquitoes The Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus, are the primary vectors responsible for transmitting the Chikungunya virus to humans when they bite an infected person and then bite another person, spreading the virus.
15. Transovarian transmission is seen in:
a. Rickettsia disease
b. Malaria
c. Filariasis
d. None
Answer: a. Rickettsia disease
Description:Transovarian transmission refers to the transmission of a pathogen from the female arthropod (insects or ticks) to its offspring through the eggs. In the case of Rickettsia diseases, such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever, transovarian transmission can occur, allowing the pathogen to be passed from one generation of arthropods to the next.
16. Mosquito is not associated with transmission of:
a. Malaria
b. Typhus
c. Dengue fever
d. Japanese’s encephalitis
Answer: b. Typhus
Description:The mosquito is not associated with the transmission of: b. Typhus Typhus is not primarily transmitted by mosquitoes. It is transmitted by fleas, lice, or mites that infest rodents or humans. Different types of typhus (e.g., epidemic typhus and scrub typhus) are transmitted by these arthropods, not mosquitoes. Mosquitoes are associated with the transmission of diseases such as malaria, dengue fever, and Japanese encephalitis.
17. The most common cause of Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) in community is:
a. E. coli
b. Klebsiella
c. Citrobacter
d. Proteus vulgaris
Answer: a. E. coli
Description:The most common cause of Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) in the community is: a. E. coli (Escherichia coli) Escherichia coli is the most frequently encountered bacteria responsible for urinary tract infections, especially in community settings. It is a common inhabitant of the gastrointestinal tract and can enter the urinary tract, leading to infections when there is a breach in the body's defenses. While other bacteria like Klebsiella, Citrobacter, and Proteus vulgaris can also cause UTIs, E. coli is the most prevalent pathogen in community-acquired UTIs.
18. During home visit, nurse mala found no signs of dehydration in 7 weeks old child who had diarrhea for last 2 weeks. The child is having:
a. Persistent diarrhea
b. Acute diarrhea
c. Dysentery
d. Severe dysentery
Answer: a. Persistent diarrhea
Description:The child with diarrhea for the last 2 weeks without signs of dehydration would likely be classified as having: a. Persistent diarrhea Persistent diarrhea is characterized by diarrhea that lasts for 14 days or more. It is important to monitor such cases closely, as prolonged diarrhea can lead to dehydration and other health complications, even if signs of dehydration are not immediately present.
19. Glucose is added to antidiarrheal solution because:
a. It taste sweet
b. Increase absorption of amino acids
c. Increase absorption of sodium
d. All of the above.
Answer: c. Increase absorption of sodium
Description:Glucose facilitates the absorption of sodium in the small intestine, which in turn increases the absorption of water and other electrolytes, helping to rehydrate the body and combat diarrhea. This is why oral rehydration solutions (ORS) often contain glucose along with salts and electrolytes to effectively treat dehydration caused by diarrhea. The other options (a. It tastes sweet and b. Increases absorption of amino acids) are not the primary reasons for adding glucose to these solutions.
20. Oral rehydration solution dose not contain:
a. Sodium chloride
b. Calcium lactate
c. Bicarbonate
d. Glucose
Answer: b. Calcium lactate
Description:Calcium lactate is not a component of ORS solution
21. Dehydration in a child with diarrhea, thirst present, tears absent is:
a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. None
Answer: b. Moderate
Description:Dehydration in a child with diarrhea, thirst present, and tears absent is typically categorized as: b. Moderate Moderate dehydration in a child with diarrhea indicates a significant loss of fluids and electrolytes but is not as severe as severe dehydration. It is important to address moderate dehydration promptly to prevent it from worsening.
22. During a home visit, a community health nurse found a child who is suffering from diarrhea and vomiting. What would be the nurse teach the mother to prepare first?
a. Oral dextrose solution
b. oral rehydration solution
c. Oral saline solution
d. Semi solid food
Answer: b. oral rehydration solution
Description:The nurse would teach the mother to prepare: b. Oral rehydration solution (ORS) ORS is a crucial first step in managing a child with diarrhea and vomiting because it helps replace lost fluids and electrolytes. It is specifically designed to rehydrate the child and prevent dehydration, which is a common and potentially dangerous complication of diarrhea and vomiting. It's essential to start with ORS before introducing any other fluids or foods.
23. New WHO ORS osmolarity is:
a. 270
b. 245
c. 290
d. 310
Answer: b. 245
Description:The new WHO Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) osmolarity is: b. 245 The osmolarity of the new WHO ORS is 245 mOsm/L. This formulation is designed to be more effective in treating dehydration caused by diarrhea in children and adults.
24. Which of the following is not present is ORS?
a. Glucose
b. Calcium gluconate
c. Potassium chloride
d. Sodium chloride
Answer: b. Calcium gluconate
Description:The component that is typically not present in Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) is: b. Calcium gluconate ORS usually contains glucose, potassium chloride, and sodium chloride as its key components to help rehydrate and replace lost electrolytes during episodes of diarrhea and dehydration. Calcium gluconate is not a standard component of ORS.
25. ORS should be discarded after……….of preparation
a. 54 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
Answer: d. 24 hours
Description:ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution) should be discarded after: d. 24 hours It is important to use freshly prepared ORS within 24 hours and discard any unused solution after that time to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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