NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 227
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1. Which of the following in a zoonotic disease?
a. Hydatid cyst
b. Malaria
c. Filariasis
d. Dengue fever.
Answer: a. Hydatid cyst
Description:A zoonotic disease is a type of illness that can be transmitted from animals to humans. Among the options provided, the zoonotic disease is "a. Hydatid cyst." This means that hydatid cyst is a disease that can be passed from animals to humans, making it a zoonotic disease. The other options, b. Malaria, c. Filariasis, and d. Dengue fever, are not typically transmitted from animals to humans, so they are not considered zoonotic diseases.
2. All are anthropogonic disease; EXCEPT:
a. Plague
b. Hydatid disease
c. Dracunculiasis
d. Rabies
Answer: c. Dracunculiasis
Description:An anthropogenic disease is one that is primarily caused by human activities. Among the options provided, the anthropogenic disease is "c. Dracunculiasis." This means that Dracunculiasis is primarily caused by human activities. Plague (option a) can be caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis, which is transmitted through fleas that infest rodents, and it can affect humans. While human activities can play a role in its transmission, it is not solely anthropogenic. Hydatid disease (option b), also known as hydatid cyst disease, is caused by the parasitic tapeworm Echinococcus. While human activities, such as livestock farming, can contribute to its spread, it primarily involves the transmission between animals and humans, making it zoonotic rather than purely anthropogenic. So, the correct answer is indeed "c. Dracunculiasis," as it is primarily a result of human activities.
3. Zoonotic disease transmitted by arthropods is/are:
a. Plague
b. Melioidoses
c. Rabies
d. Leishmaniasis
Answer: a. Plague
Description:Plague is a bacterial disease that is transmitted to humans by fleas that have bitten infected rodents. The fleas become infected when they bite an infected rodent. When the flea bites a human, it regurgitates the bacteria into the human's bloodstream. The other options are also zoonotic diseases, but they are not transmitted by arthropods. Melioidosis is a bacterial disease that is transmitted to humans by contact with contaminated soil or water. Rabies is a viral disease that is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected animal, such as a dog, bat, or raccoon. Leishmaniasis is a parasitic disease that is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected sandfly.
4. Rabies free country is:
a. China
b. Russia
c. Australia
d. France
Answer: c. Australia
Description:Rabies is a deadly viral disease that is transmitted through the bite of an infected animal. It is a serious public health problem in many parts of the world, but Australia has been free of rabies since 1988. This is due to a combination of factors, including: Strict quarantine laws: All pets entering Australia must be quarantined for 10 days. Vaccination programs: All dogs and cats in Australia are required to be vaccinated against rabies. Wildlife management: The government works to control populations of animals that can carry rabies, such as bats and foxes.
5. High prevalence of tuberculosis found in which of the following group of people?
a. Smokers
b. Diabetics
c. Asthmatics
d. HIV positive
Answer: d. HIV positive
Description:This is because HIV weakens the immune system, making it more difficult for the body to fight off infections. The other options are also at an increased risk of developing tuberculosis, but not as high as HIV positive people. Smokers are at an increased risk of developing tuberculosis because smoking damages the lungs, making it easier for the bacteria to spread. Diabetics are at an increased risk of developing tuberculosis because diabetes weakens the immune system. Asthmatics are not at an increased risk of developing tuberculosis.
6. ……disease has received maximum social stigma in India:
a. Tuberculosis
b. Leprosy
c. Polio
d. Cholera
Answer: b. Leprosy
Description:Leprosy, also known as Hansen's disease, has historically been associated with social stigma and discrimination in India. This stigma stems from various misconceptions and fear surrounding the disease. People with leprosy have often been ostracized and isolated from their communities due to the misunderstanding that it is highly contagious, which is not true. This social stigma has led to individuals with leprosy facing discrimination in various aspects of life, including education, employment, and social interactions. Efforts have been made to raise awareness and reduce the stigma associated with leprosy, but it remains a significant challenge in India's healthcare landscape.
7. The another name for leprosy is:
a. Hansen’s disease
b. Anderson’s disease
c. Chagas disease
d. Slim of disease
Answer: a. Hansen’s disease
Description:Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae, a bacterium that affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, and the lining of the nose. It is a progressive disease that can cause disfiguring skin lesions, nerve damage, and other health problems. The name "Hansen's disease" is named after the Norwegian physician Gerhard Armauer Hansen, who discovered the bacterium that causes leprosy in 1873. Leprosy is curable with early diagnosis and treatment. Multidrug therapy (MDT), a combination of three or four antibiotics, is the standard treatment for leprosy. MDT is effective in curing the disease and preventing its spread. Leprosy is a neglected tropical disease, meaning that it affects mostly poor and marginalized people in developing countries. It is estimated that there are about 2 million people with leprosy in the world today.
8. Strategies of leprosy eradication program includes all of the following; EXCEPT:
a. Early detection and complete treatment of new leprosy cases
b. Early diagnosis and prompt MDT, through routine and special efforts.
c. Strengthening of disability prevention and Medical rehabilitation (DPMR) services
d. Centralized leprosy services through dedicated hospitals for leprosy treatments.
Answer: d. Centralized leprosy services through dedicated hospitals for leprosy treatments.
Description:The other options are all strategies of leprosy eradication programs. Early detection and complete treatment of new leprosy cases: This is the most important strategy for leprosy eradication. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent the spread of the disease and prevent disability. Early diagnosis and prompt MDT, through routine and special efforts: This strategy involves using different methods to find and treat leprosy cases early. This includes routine screening of people in high-risk groups, as well as special efforts to find cases in hard-to-reach areas. Strengthening of disability prevention and Medical rehabilitation (DPMR) services: This strategy involves providing services to help people with leprosy prevent or minimize disability. This includes providing physical therapy, occupational therapy, and other services.
9. Mode of transmission of leprosy is:
a. Breast milk
b. Insect bite
c. Droplet infection
d. Both b and c
Answer: d. Both b and c
Description:Leprosy is not transmitted through sexual contact or casual contact. It is spread through close contact with an infected person's nasal secretions or through breaks in the skin. The bacteria that cause leprosy can also be transmitted through breast milk. Insect bites are not a common way to get leprosy. However, there is some evidence that the biting midge, also known as the sandfly, can transmit leprosy. The risk of getting leprosy from an infected person is low. However, the risk is higher if you have close contact with an infected person over a long period of time. If you are concerned about getting leprosy, talk to your doctor. There are effective treatments available for leprosy.
10. Which of the following is the early sign of leprosy?
a. Loss of sensation
b. Lesions over the skin
c. Thickened painful nerves
d. Sinking of the nose bridge
Answer: c. Thickened painful nerves
Description:The early sign of leprosy is thickened painful nerves. This is because the bacteria that cause leprosy can damage the nerves, which can lead to numbness, tingling, and pain. The other options are also signs of leprosy, but they are not as common in the early stages of the disease. Lesions over the skin and sinking of the nose bridge are more common in the later stages of leprosy.
11. Lepromin test is used to diagnose:
a. Leprosy
b. Malaria
c. TB
d. HIV/AIDS
Answer: a. Leprosy
Description:The lepromin test is a skin test that is used to diagnose leprosy. It is not a definitive test, but it can be used to help determine the type of leprosy that a person has. The lepromin test is done by injecting a small amount of an extract of Mycobacterium leprae into the skin. If the person has leprosy, the immune system will react to the injection and cause a small lump to form at the injection site. The size of the lump can help to determine the type of leprosy that the person has. The lepromin test is not a perfect test. It can be positive in people who do not have leprosy and it can be negative in people who do have leprosy. However, it is a useful tool that can help to diagnose leprosy. The other options are not diseases that can be diagnosed with the lepromin test. Malaria is a mosquito-borne disease that is caused by a parasite. TB is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs or other parts of the body. HIV/AIDS is a virus that attacks the immune system.
12. Lepromin test is usually read after:
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks
Answer: d. 4 weeks
Description:The Lepromin test is typically read after 4 weeks. This means that after a person has been administered the test, healthcare professionals wait for four weeks before interpreting the results to determine the individual's immune response to the bacteria that causes leprosy.
13. Classification of leprosy is based upon:
a. Bacteriological status
b. Immunological status
c. Histological status
d. All of the above,
Answer: d. All of the above,
Description:The classification of leprosy is based on all of the above factors: bacteriological status, immunological status, and histological status. This means that healthcare professionals consider various aspects, including the presence of the bacteria, the individual's immune response, and the examination of tissue samples, to determine the specific classification of leprosy in a patient.
14. Drug of choice for leprosy:
a. DEC
b. Dapsone
c. Streptomycin
d. Ivermectin
Answer: b. Dapsone
Description:The drug of choice for leprosy is dapsone (option b). Dapsone, also known as DDS (diaminodiphenyl sulfone), is one of the key medications used in the treatment of leprosy, particularly for the milder forms of the disease.
15. Lepromin test is used for all of the following; EXCEPT:
a. Classify the lesions of leprosy patients
b. Determine the prognosis of disease
c. Asses the resistance of individuals to leprosy
d. Diagnosis of leprosy
Answer: d. Diagnosis of leprosy
Description:The Lepromin test is primarily used to classify the lesions of leprosy patients, determine the prognosis of the disease, and assess the resistance of individuals to leprosy. It is not typically used as a primary diagnostic test for leprosy. Other diagnostic methods, such as skin biopsies and clinical evaluation, are commonly employed for diagnosing leprosy.
16. Who discovered tuberculin skin test?
a. Von Parquet
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Ronald ross
d. Edward Jenner
Answer: a. Von Parquet
Description:The tuberculin skin test was discovered by Clemens von Pirquet, an Austrian pediatrician, in 1907. He injected a small amount of tuberculin, a protein extract from the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, into the skin of the forearm. If the person had been infected with tuberculosis, the immune system would react to the injection and cause a small lump to form at the injection site. The tuberculin skin test is a reliable way to detect past or present infection with tuberculosis. It is also used to determine whether someone is at risk of developing active tuberculosis. The other options are incorrect. Louis Pasteur discovered the process of vaccination, Ronald Ross discovered the transmission of malaria, and Edward Jenner discovered the smallpox vaccine.
17. Robert Koch discovered the etiologic agent of:
a. Typhoid
b. Smallpox
c. Tuberculosis
d. Polio
Answer: c. Tuberculosis
Description:Robert Koch was a German physician and microbiologist who is considered the father of bacteriology. He discovered the bacterium that causes tuberculosis, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, in 1882. He also discovered the bacteria that cause cholera and anthrax. Koch's postulates are a set of four criteria that must be met to prove that a particular microbe causes a particular disease. The postulates are: The microbe must be found in every case of the disease. The microbe must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture. The microbe must cause the disease when it is introduced into a healthy host. The microbe must be re-isolated from the diseased host. Koch's postulates have been modified over time, but they are still used as a foundation for research into the causes of disease.
18. Following is a contagious disease:
a. Filaria
b. Tuberculosis
c. Malaria
d. Hookworm infestation
Answer: b. Tuberculosis
Description:Tuberculosis (TB) is a contagious disease caused by bacteria that can spread through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Other ways it can spread are through saliva, mucus, or blood. The other options are not contagious diseases. Filaria is a parasitic infection that is spread by mosquitoes. Malaria is a mosquito-borne disease that is caused by a parasite. Hookworm infestation is an infection caused by a parasite that lives in the small intestine.
19. Which of the following infection of animals primarily can transmitted through milk?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Dengue
c. Plague
d. Leptospirosis
Answer: a. Tuberculosis
Description:Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect any part of the body, but it most commonly affects the lungs. It can be spread through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. However, it can also be transmitted through milk from infected animals. The other options are not infections that can be transmitted through milk. Dengue is a mosquito-borne disease that is caused by a virus. Plague is a bacterial infection that is spread through the bite of an infected flea. Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection that is spread through contact with contaminated water or soil.
20. Tuberculin test denotes:
a. Previous or present sensitivity to tubercle proteins
b. Patient is resistant to tuberculosis
c. Patient is susceptible to tuberculosis
d. Protective immune status of individual against tuberculosis
Answer: a. Previous or present sensitivity to tubercle proteins
Description:The tuberculin test, also known as the Mantoux test, is a skin test that is used to check for previous or present infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis. The test is done by injecting a small amount of tuberculin, a protein extract from the bacterium, into the skin of the forearm. If the person has been infected with tuberculosis, the immune system will react to the injection and cause a small lump to form at the injection site. The size of the lump is measured 48 to 72 hours after the injection. A positive tuberculin test means that the person has been infected with tuberculosis at some point in their life. However, it does not mean that the person has active tuberculosis. A positive tuberculin test can also be caused by vaccination with the BCG vaccine. A negative tuberculin test means that the person has not been infected with tuberculosis. However, it is important to note that the tuberculin test is not 100% accurate. A small number of people with active tuberculosis will have a negative tuberculin test. The tuberculin test is a useful tool for screening people for tuberculosis. However, it is important to remember that it is not a definitive test. If you have a positive tuberculin test, you should see a doctor to get further testing to determine if you have active tuberculosis.
21. The size of respirable dust is:
a. 20 microns
b. 15 microns
c. 10 microns
d. 5 microns
Answer: d. 5 microns
Description:Respirable dust is defined as dust particles that are small enough to be inhaled into the lungs. Respirable dust particles are typically less than 10 microns in diameter. Dust particles that are larger than 10 microns are typically filtered out by the nose and throat. However, dust particles that are smaller than 10 microns can reach the alveoli, the tiny air sacs in the lungs. The alveoli are where gas exchange takes place. When respirable dust particles reach the alveoli, they can cause inflammation and other health problems.
22. DOTS is for………………. condition of:
a. Tuberculosis
b. Leprosy
c. Malaria
d. HIV
Answer: a. Tuberculosis
Description:DOTS stands for Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course. It is a strategy for the treatment of tuberculosis that was developed by the World Health Organization (WHO). DOTS involves the following components: Direct observation: This means that a health care worker or other trained person watches the patient take their medication every day. This helps to ensure that the patient takes the medication correctly and does not miss any doses. Short-course: This means that the treatment is shorter than the traditional treatment for tuberculosis. The standard treatment for tuberculosis is 6 months, but DOTS can be completed in 6 to 9 months. High-quality drugs: DOTS uses high-quality drugs that are effective against tuberculosis.
23. Among the following secondary prevention of TB is:
a. BCG vaccination
b. DOTS treatment
c. Health education
d. Sputum testing
Answer: b. DOTS treatment
Description:Secondary prevention of tuberculosis is the prevention of the development of active tuberculosis in people who have been infected with the tuberculosis bacteria. DOTS treatment is a strategy for the treatment of tuberculosis that is effective in preventing the development of active tuberculosis. BCG vaccination is a primary prevention measure, meaning it is given to healthy people to prevent them from getting infected with the tuberculosis bacteria in the first place. Health education and sputum testing are both important components of tuberculosis control, but they are not considered secondary prevention measures.
24. Staining technique used to diagnose TB is known as:
a. Ziehl-Nelsen stain
b. Gram stain
c. Giemsa stain
d. PAS
Answer: a. Ziehl-Nelsen stain
Description:The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is a staining technique used to detect acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium that causes tuberculosis. The stain is based on the fact that acid-fast bacteria have a waxy coating that makes them resistant to staining with most dyes. The Ziehl-Neelsen stain uses a heat-fixed smear of the bacteria and two dyes, carbol fuchsin and methylene blue. The carbol fuchsin dye is able to penetrate the waxy coating of the bacteria and stain them red. The methylene blue dye is then used to counterstain the background, making the bacteria stand out. The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is a sensitive and specific test for tuberculosis. However, it is not always 100% accurate. A negative Ziehl-Neelsen stain does not necessarily mean that the person does not have tuberculosis. A positive Ziehl-Neelsen stain, on the other hand, is more likely to be indicative of tuberculosis. The other options are incorrect. Gram stain is used to stain bacteria based on their cell wall composition. Giemsa stain is used to stain blood cells and tissues. PAS stain is used to stain fungi and other microorganisms.
25. Which of the full form of DOTS chemotherapy?
a. Directly observed treatment short course
b. Digitally operated treatment service
c. De oxygenated tratracycline streptomycin
d. Doxycycline omeprazole-tetracycline short course
Answer: a. Directly observed treatment short course
Description:The full form of DOTS chemotherapy is Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course. It is a strategy for the treatment of tuberculosis that was developed by the World Health Organization (WHO). DOTS involves the following components: Direct observation: This means that a health care worker or other trained person watches the patient take their medication every day. This helps to ensure that the patient takes the medication correctly and does not miss any doses. Short-course: This means that the treatment is shorter than the traditional treatment for tuberculosis. The standard treatment for tuberculosis is 6 months, but DOTS can be completed in 6 to 9 months. High-quality drugs: DOTS uses high-quality drugs that are effective against tuberculosis. DOTS has been shown to be an effective way to treat tuberculosis and to prevent the spread of the disease. It is the recommended treatment for tuberculosis by the WHO. The other options are incorrect. Digitally operated treatment service is not a real term. De oxygenated tetracycline streptomycin is not a chemotherapy regimen. Doxycycline omeprazole-tetracycline short course is not a chemotherapy regimen for tuberculosis.
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