NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 232
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1. What is the best method to dispose hospital waste?
a. Composting
b. Dumping
c. Chemical treatment
d. Incineration
Answer: d. Incineration
Description:Incineration is the preferred method for disposing of hospital waste because it involves burning the waste at very high temperatures. This process helps to destroy pathogens (disease-causing microorganisms) and reduces the volume of waste, making it safer and more manageable. Incineration also minimizes the risk of contamination and is in line with environmental regulations when conducted properly. The other options listed, such as composting, dumping, and chemical treatment, are not as effective or safe for disposing of hospital waste, as they may not fully eliminate the risks associated with infectious or hazardous materials.
2. Incineration is not done for:
a. Cytotoxic drugs
b. Waste sharp
c. Human anatomical waste
d. Both a and b
Answer: d. Both a and b
Description:Incineration is not typically done for cytotoxic drugs (option a) or waste sharps (option b). These types of hospital waste require specialized disposal methods. Cytotoxic drugs are medications used in cancer treatment that can be harmful even in trace amounts. They should not be disposed of through incineration because burning them may release harmful substances into the environment. Instead, they are typically disposed of through specific pharmaceutical waste disposal methods. Waste sharps include items like needles, syringes, and other sharp medical instruments. Incineration can be used for some waste sharps, but it's not the only or necessarily the best method. Sharps should be properly collected in puncture-resistant containers and then disposed of through methods that ensure their safe handling and destruction, such as autoclaving or other sterilization methods. So, the correct answer is indeed option d, as incineration is not the recommended method for disposing of cytotoxic drugs or all types of waste sharps.
3. Incineration is:
a. High temperature reduction process
b. High temperature oxidation process
c. Low temperature reduction process
d. Low temperature oxidation process
Answer: b. High temperature oxidation process
Description:Incineration is a high-temperature oxidation process. It involves burning waste materials at very high temperatures, typically in the range of 900 to 1,200 degrees Celsius (1,600 to 2,200 degrees Fahrenheit). This high temperature causes the waste to undergo oxidation reactions, breaking down organic materials and reducing them to ash. Incineration is used to reduce the volume of waste and destroy pathogens and hazardous substances, making it a key method for disposing of certain types of waste, including medical and hazardous waste.
4. Sharp waste should be disposed in:
a. Black
b. Blue/White translucent
c. Yellow
d. Red
Answer: b. Blue/White translucent
Description:Sharps waste, which includes items like needles, syringes, and other sharp medical instruments, should typically be disposed of in containers that are blue or white and translucent. These containers are specifically designed for the safe disposal of sharps waste and are often labeled as "sharps containers." The translucent design allows healthcare professionals to see the contents and ensure safe handling. Additionally, these containers are puncture-resistant to prevent accidental needlesticks or injuries during disposal.
5. “3-D†in hospital waste management is:
a. Disinfection, Disposal, Drainage
b. Discard, Disinfection, Drainage
c. Destruction, Deep burial, Drainage
d. Destruction, Deep burial, Disposal
Answer: a. Disinfection, Disposal, Drainage
Description:In hospital waste management, the "3-D" approach stands for Disinfection, Disposal, and Drainage. This approach outlines the steps involved in the proper management of medical waste to ensure that it is safely handled, treated, and disposed of, reducing the risk of infection and environmental contamination.
6. Which of the following can be incinerated?
a. Human waste
b. Radiographic waste
c. PVC
d. Pressurized gas container
Answer: a. Human waste
Description:In the context of waste disposal, the items that can be incinerated safely and effectively are typically materials that can be burned at high temperatures without posing significant environmental or health risks. Let's evaluate each option: a. Human waste: In some cases, human waste can be incinerated safely, but it depends on the specific circumstances and regulations. Modern medical waste incinerators are designed to handle various types of waste, including human waste, while ensuring complete combustion and minimizing emissions. b. Radiographic waste: Radiographic waste, such as X-ray films and chemicals, can be incinerated, but it should be done using specialized medical waste incinerators that are equipped to handle the materials safely. c. PVC (Polyvinyl Chloride): PVC should not be incinerated because it can release toxic chlorine gas and other harmful substances when burned. It is not a suitable material for incineration. d. Pressurized gas container: Pressurized gas containers should not be incinerated because they can explode when subjected to high temperatures. Proper disposal methods for these containers typically involve depressurization, puncturing, or other safe methods to render them non-hazardous before disposal.
7. Safe disposal of mercury is:
a. Collect carefully and recycle
b. Controlled combustion
c. Chemical treatment
d. Deep burial
Answer: a. Collect carefully and recycle
Description:Mercury is a hazardous substance, and the safe disposal method for mercury is to collect it carefully and recycle it. Recycling helps prevent mercury from entering the environment and reduces the risk of mercury contamination. Mercury-containing items, such as thermometers and fluorescent light bulbs, should be properly collected, and the mercury should be extracted and recycled through appropriate recycling facilities or hazardous waste disposal programs. Controlled combustion (option b), chemical treatment (option c), and deep burial (option d) are not recommended for the disposal of mercury-containing items, as they can lead to environmental contamination and health hazards.
8. Outdated cytotoxic drugs are disposed of by:
a. Disposal in municipal waste
b. Destruction and dumping in secured landfill
c. Store for months and then burial
d. Autoclave
Answer: b. Destruction and dumping in secured landfill
Description:Outdated cytotoxic drugs, which are hazardous pharmaceuticals, should not be disposed of in the municipal waste (option a), stored for months and then buried (option c), or autoclaved (option d) without proper treatment and disposal. Instead, they should be carefully collected, securely destroyed (typically through incineration or other approved methods that render them non-hazardous), and then disposed of in a secured landfill designed to handle hazardous waste. This approach ensures the safe and proper disposal of these drugs while minimizing the risk of environmental contamination and harm to human health.
9. Method for waste disposal in small camps in:
a. Burial
b. Land filling
c. Incineration
d. Dumping
Answer: a. Burial
Description:In small camps or remote locations, burying waste is a common and practical method of disposal. This method involves digging a pit or trench and placing the waste materials into it, followed by covering the waste with soil. Proper burial techniques help minimize environmental impact and prevent waste from attracting animals or causing pollution. It's important to ensure that the burial complies with local regulations and does not contaminate groundwater sources.
10. Ozonosphere is mainly depleted by:
a. Ozone
b. Excess Carbon monoxide
c. Excess carbon dioxide
d. CFCs
Answer: d. CFCs
Description:Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are synthetic compounds that were once commonly used in refrigeration, air conditioning, aerosol propellants, and other industrial applications. When released into the atmosphere, CFCs can migrate up to the ozone layer in the stratosphere. There, they are broken down by ultraviolet (UV) radiation, releasing chlorine atoms. These chlorine atoms can then catalyze the destruction of ozone molecules, leading to ozone depletion. Ozone depletion is a significant environmental issue because the ozone layer plays a crucial role in protecting life on Earth by absorbing and blocking harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. The depletion of the ozone layer can result in increased UV radiation reaching the Earth's surface, which can have harmful effects on human health and the environment.
11. All of the following are the possible adverse effects of global warming; EXCEPT:
a. Melting glaciers
b. Extraordinary weather patterns
c. Increase in UVB radiation
d. Rise in sea level
Answer: c. Increase in UVB radiation
Description:a. Melting glaciers: Rising global temperatures can lead to the melting of glaciers and polar ice caps, contributing to rising sea levels. b. Extraordinary weather patterns: Global warming can disrupt weather patterns, leading to more frequent and severe weather events, including heatwaves, droughts, floods, hurricanes, and storms. d. Rise in sea level: As temperatures rise, polar ice melts, and thermal expansion of seawater occurs, leading to an increase in sea levels. This can result in coastal erosion and the flooding of low-lying coastal areas. Option c, "Increase in UVB radiation," is not typically considered a direct adverse effect of global warming. While global warming and ozone depletion are related environmental issues, increased UVB radiation is primarily associated with ozone depletion rather than global warming. The depletion of the ozone layer, not global warming, leads to increased levels of harmful UVB radiation reaching the Earth's surface.
12. Which of the following is not a major greenhouse gas?
a. Ozone
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Methane
d. Carbon dioxide
Answer: a. Ozone
Description:Ozone is not considered a major greenhouse gas in the context of contributing to the greenhouse effect and global warming. While ozone is present in the Earth's atmosphere and plays a crucial role in protecting us from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun in the stratosphere (the ozone layer), it does not have the same significant greenhouse effect as gases like carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N2O). These other gases are much more effective at trapping heat in the Earth's atmosphere and contributing to global warming.
13. Global warming also refers to as:
a. Ecological change
b. Atmosphere change
c. Climate change
d. None of the above.
Answer: c. Climate change
Description:Global warming is often used interchangeably with the term "climate change." While global warming specifically refers to the long-term increase in Earth's average surface temperature due to the enhanced greenhouse effect, climate change encompasses a broader range of changes in Earth's climate patterns, including shifts in temperature, precipitation patterns, sea level rise, and the frequency and intensity of extreme weather events. So, climate change is the more encompassing term that includes global warming as one of its components.
14. UNFCCC stands for:
a. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
b. United Nations Feedback Convention on Climate Change
c. United Nations Framework Council on Climate Change
d. United Nations Focus Council on Climate Change.
Answer: a. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
Description:UNFCCC stands for the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. It is an international treaty aimed at addressing and combatting climate change by coordinating efforts among countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
15. All of the following types of sources of energy do not produce carbon dioxide; EXCEPT:
a. Wind energy
b. Geothermal energy
c. Hydroelectric energy
d. Coal thermal energy
Answer: d. Coal thermal energy
Description:Coal thermal energy is the only source of energy listed that produces carbon dioxide when burned. Coal is a fossil fuel, and its combustion releases carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas, into the atmosphere. In contrast: a. Wind energy: Wind turbines generate electricity without emitting carbon dioxide. b. Geothermal energy: Geothermal power plants use heat from the Earth's interior to produce electricity and do not produce carbon dioxide emissions during operation. c. Hydroelectric energy: Hydroelectric power is generated by flowing water, such as from rivers or dams, and does not release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere during electricity generation.
16. Which of the following disease causes most death worldwide?
a. cardiovascular disease
b. HIV/AIDS
c. Malaria
d. Tuberculosis
Answer: a. cardiovascular disease
Description:Cardiovascular diseases, which include conditions like heart disease and stroke, are the leading cause of death globally. These diseases are responsible for a significant proportion of deaths in many countries and are a major public health concern. While diseases like HIV/AIDS (option b), malaria (option c), and tuberculosis (option d) also contribute to global morbidity and mortality, cardiovascular diseases are the leading cause of death worldwide.
17. Following are major criteria of Jones in Rheumatic fever; EXCEPT:
a. Carditis
b. Polyarthritis
c. Chorea
d. Elevated ESR
Answer: d. Elevated ESR
Description:The major criteria of Jones in Rheumatic fever include: a. Carditis b. Polyarthritis c. Chorea Elevated ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) is not one of the major criteria for diagnosing Rheumatic fever. Instead, elevated ESR can be considered a non-specific indicator of inflammation and is not part of the Jones criteria for diagnosing this condition.
18. While teaching a patient with COPD regarding exercise, the community health nurse should emphasize:
a. Rest in between exercise
b. Avoid exercise
c. Exercise strenuously
d. Take medication in between exercise
Answer: a. Rest in between exercise
Description:For individuals with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), it's important to encourage exercise but also stress the importance of pacing themselves and resting in between exercise sessions. Exercise can help improve lung function and overall fitness in COPD patients, but overexertion can lead to increased shortness of breath and fatigue. Therefore, taking breaks and resting as needed during exercise is crucial to avoid exacerbating COPD symptoms.
19. Modifiable risk factor for hypertension is:
a. Ethnicity
b. Age
c. Sex
d. Obesity
Answer: d. Obesity
Description:Obesity is a modifiable risk factor, meaning that it can be changed or managed through lifestyle modifications such as diet and exercise. It is a well-established risk factor for developing hypertension, and losing weight through a healthy diet and regular physical activity can help lower blood pressure and reduce the risk of hypertension. The other factors listed (ethnicity, age, and sex) are non-modifiable risk factors, meaning they cannot be changed. These factors can contribute to an individual's risk of developing hypertension, but they cannot be altered through lifestyle changes.
20. Not included among major criteria in acute rheumatic fever is:
a. Erythema marginatum
b. Polyarthralgia
c. Chorea
d. Pancarditis
Answer: b. Polyarthralgia
Description:The major criteria for the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever (ARF) include: a. Erythema marginatum c. Chorea d. Pancarditis Polyarthralgia (option b) is not one of the major criteria for the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever. It's important to note that ARF is diagnosed based on a combination of major and minor criteria, and these criteria help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis in suspected cases.
21. Not a dietary modification in high risk cardiovascular disease group is:
a. LDL cholesterol less than 100 mg/dl
b. Avoidance of alcohol
c. Saturated fat intake limited to 7% of total calories
d. Salt intake less than 5 gm/day
Answer: a. LDL cholesterol less than 100 mg/dl
Description:While it is important to manage LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol levels, the specific target value of less than 100 mg/dl may vary depending on individual patient factors and guidelines. It's crucial to individualize cholesterol management based on the patient's overall risk profile and medical history. The other options (b, c, and d) are generally recommended dietary modifications for individuals at high risk for cardiovascular disease: b. Avoidance of alcohol: High-risk cardiovascular patients are often advised to limit or avoid alcohol consumption because excessive alcohol intake can contribute to heart problems. c. Saturated fat intake limited to 7% of total calories: Reducing saturated fat intake is important for managing cardiovascular risk as it can help lower LDL cholesterol levels. d. Salt intake less than 5 gm/day: Reducing salt intake can help manage blood pressure, which is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease.
22. Modifiable risk factors in CHD are all; EXCEPT:
a. Smoking
b. Obesity
c. Personality
d. Hypertension
Answer: c. Personality
Description:The modifiable risk factors for Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) include: a. Smoking b. Obesity d. Hypertension Personality (option c) is not considered a modifiable risk factor for CHD. Personality traits may influence behavior, such as smoking or dietary choices, which can contribute to CHD risk, but personality itself is not a risk factor that can be directly modified through lifestyle changes.
23. Ideal cholesterol level should be less than:
a. 200
b. 220
c. 300
d. 350
Answer: a. 200
Description:A total cholesterol level of less than 200 mg/dL is typically considered healthy and associated with a lower risk of heart disease. However, it's important to note that cholesterol management also involves considering the levels of LDL (low-density lipoprotein) cholesterol, HDL (high-density lipoprotein) cholesterol, and triglycerides, as these components provide a more comprehensive assessment of cardiovascular risk. The target values for these specific cholesterol components may vary depending on an individual's overall cardiovascular risk profile and specific guidelines.
24. The most common early manifestation of chronic bronchitis:
a. Frequent productive cough
b. Dyspnea on exertion
c. Cyanosis at feet
d. Blood in sputum
Answer: a. Frequent productive cough
Description:Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation and irritation of the bronchial tubes in the lungs, which leads to increased production of mucus. A persistent cough with mucus production is a common early symptom of chronic bronchitis. Over time, other symptoms like dyspnea on exertion (option b) may develop as the condition progresses, but the frequent productive cough is typically one of the initial signs. Options c and d are less common and are not typically early manifestations of chronic bronchitis.
25. The most common cancer, affecting both males and females worldwide is:
a. Cancer of the pancreas
b. Buccal mucosa cancer
c. Lung cancer
d. Colorectal cancer
Answer: c. Lung cancer
Description:Lung cancer is one of the most prevalent cancers globally and is a leading cause of cancer-related deaths. It affects both men and women, making it the most common cancer overall. Tobacco smoking is a major risk factor for developing lung cancer.
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