NATIONAL AND STATE NURSING EXAM- MCQ _MG_00 228
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1. In emergency contraception which progesterone is used?
a. Norethisterone
b. Medroxyprogesterone
c. Desogestrel
d. Levonorgestrel
Answer: d. Levonorgestrel
Description:In emergency contraception, the progesterone used is d. Levonorgestrel.
2. The diagram that is used to predict possible genotypes is an offspring is known as:
a. Genogram
b. Punnett square
c. Pedigree chart
d. All of the above.
Answer: b. Punnett square
Description:The diagram that is used to predict possible genotypes in offspring is known as b. Punnett square.
3. Detection of high levels of alpha fetoprotein in mother’s blood indicates that developing baby has:
a. Coarctation of aorta
b. Delayed skeletal development
c. Neural tube defect
d. Development of tumor
Answer: c. Neural tube defect
Description:High levels of alpha-fetoprotein in a mother's blood during pregnancy can indicate the possibility of a neural tube defect in the developing baby. This test is often used to screen for conditions like spina bifida and anencephaly.
4. Kegel exercise during pregnancy help in strengthening of:
a. Pelvic floor muscle
b. Psoas muscle
c. Rectus abdominis
d. Quadratus lumborum
Answer: a. Pelvic floor muscle
Description:Kegel exercises during pregnancy help in strengthening the pelvic floor muscles, which can be beneficial for various reasons, including preventing urinary incontinence and supporting the pelvic region during pregnancy and childbirth.
5. Punnett square is useful for:
a. To determine the probability of an offspring having a particular genotype
b. To determine the incidence of disease condition
c. To determine the surveillance of the disease condition.
d. To determine the outcome of a disease condition.
Answer: a. To determine the probability of an offspring having a particular genotype
Description:A Punnett square is a tool used in genetics to predict the possible genotypes of offspring resulting from a specific genetic cross between two parents. It helps determine the likelihood of certain traits or genetic conditions being passed on to the offspring.
6. Which of the following ATT drugs is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy?
a. Pyrazinamide
b. Rifampicin
c. Streptomycin
d. Ethambutol
Answer: c. Streptomycin
Description:In pregnancy, the tuberculosis drug that is absolutely not recommended is c. Streptomycin.
7. Medical methods of abortion using a combination of mifepristone and misoprostol are found to be most effective and safe up to…………….of pregnancy.
a. 18-22 weeks
b. 13-20 weeks
c. 13-18 weeks
d. 8-12 weeks
Answer: d. 8-12 weeks
Description:Medical methods of abortion using a combination of mifepristone and misoprostol are found to be most effective and safe up to d. 8-12 weeks of pregnancy.
8. Medical termination pregnancy can be done by a registered medical practitioner if the gestation period is less than:
a. 8 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 20 weeks
d. 24 weeks
Answer: c. 20 weeks
Description:Medical termination of pregnancy can typically be done by a registered medical practitioner if the gestation period is less than c. 20 weeks. The specific laws and regulations regarding abortion gestational limits can vary by country and region, so it's essential to consult local laws and guidelines.
9. What are the amounts of calories and protein received by a pregnant women from the Anganwadi workers?
a. 300 cals, 15 gm protein
b. 500 clas, 15 gm protein
c. 300 cals, 25 gm protein
d. 500 cals, 25 gm protein
Answer: d. 500 cals, 25 gm protein
Description:500 calories and 25 grams of protein from Anganwadi workers as part of their nutritional support and supplementation. These values may vary depending on specific programs and guidelines, so it's essential to consult local authorities for the most accurate information.
10. Which one of the following is categorized as a high risk pregnancy?
a. Birth order 3
b. Maternal height 150 cm
c. Twins pregnancy
d. Blood group AB+ve
Answer: c. Twins pregnancy
Description:Twins pregnancy is categorized as a high-risk pregnancy. Twin pregnancies often come with increased risks and complications compared to singleton pregnancies, so they are closely monitored by healthcare professionals to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the babies. The other options listed do not inherently indicate a high-risk pregnancy.
11. Preterm babies:
a. Born before 37 weeks
b. Born before 40 weeks
c. Born before 42 weeks
d. Born before 47 weeks
Answer: a. Born before 37 weeks
Description:Born before 37 weeks is the correct definition of preterm babies. Preterm birth occurs when a baby is born before completing 37 weeks of pregnancy.
12. Most common cause of low high weight baby is:
a. Prematurity
b. Infection
c. Anemia
d. Diabetes
Answer: a. Prematurity
Description:Prematurity is the most common cause of low birth weight babies. Babies born prematurely, before completing a full-term pregnancy (typically 37 weeks or later), often have lower birth weights due to incomplete development in the womb.
13. Neural tube defect occurs due to lack of:
a. Folic acid
b. Calcium
c. Niacin
d. Riboflavin
Answer: a. Folic acid
Description: Folic acid deficiency is associated with the occurrence of neural tube defects. Adequate intake of folic acid, especially during early pregnancy, is crucial for preventing neural tube defects in the developing fetus.
14. Which of the following is not included in ‘5 cleans’ in conduct of delivery
a. Clean hands
b. Clean perineum
c. Clean cutting and care of cord
d. Clean surface for delivery
Answer: b. Clean perineum
Description:Clean perineum is not typically included in the "5 cleans" during the conduct of delivery. The "5 cleans" generally refer to: Clean hands: The healthcare provider should thoroughly wash their hands and nails before delivery. Clean surface for delivery: Ensuring that the delivery area is clean and sterile. Clean perineum is not a standard component of the "5 cleans." However, cleanliness and hygiene in the perineal area are important during the delivery process, but it is not usually categorized as one of the "5 cleans."
15. In which of the following conditions breastfeeding contraindicated?
a. Maternal Ebola virus disease
b. Leprosy
c. Tuberculosis
d. Typhoid
Answer: a. Maternal Ebola virus disease
Description:Maternal Ebola virus disease is a condition in which breastfeeding is contraindicated due to the risk of transmitting the Ebola virus to the infant through breast milk. In cases of maternal Ebola virus disease, formula feeding is recommended to prevent potential transmission of the virus to the baby. The other conditions listed do not typically contraindicate breastfeeding, although precautions and guidance from healthcare professionals may be necessary in some cases.
16. Rooming a practice means keeping mother and infant together:
a. For 24 hours a day
b. For 8 hours
c. Whenever baby demands for feeding
d. Whenever infant becomes hypothermic
Answer: a. For 24 hours a day
Description:Rooming-in practice in maternity care involves keeping the mother and infant together in the same room 24 hours a day, promoting bonding and facilitating breastfeeding while providing care and support to both mother and baby.
17. Exclusive breastfeeding helps mother in; EXCEPT:
a. Prevention of cervical cancer
b. Prevention of breast cancer
c. Acts as contraceptive method
d. Helps in quick and early involution of uterus
Answer: b. Prevention of breast cancer
Description:Prevention of breast cancer is not a benefit typically associated with exclusive breastfeeding for the mother. However, exclusive breastfeeding has been linked to a reduced risk of several other health issues in mothers, including cervical cancer (option a), acting as a contraceptive method (option c), and helping in the quick and early involution of the uterus (option d). It's important to note that while breastfeeding offers various health advantages, the effects on breast cancer risk reduction may vary among individuals and are subject to ongoing research.
18. Prolactin reflex in mother causes:
a. Ejection of milk
b. Production of milk
c. Suppression of milk production
d. Storage of milk
Answer: b. Production of milk
Description:The prolactin reflex in a mother is responsible for stimulating the production of milk in the mammary glands. It is a key hormonal mechanism that helps initiate and maintain lactation (the production of milk) in response to the baby's demand for breast milk.
19. Baby with birth weight of 1000-2000 g are termed:
a. Low birth weight babies
b. Very low birth weight babies
c. Small for date baby
d. Extremely low birth weight babies
Answer: b. Very low birth weight babies
Description:Very low birth weight babies Babies with a birth weight of 1000-2000 grams are termed "very low birth weight babies."
20. Warm chain means:
a. Drying the baby.
b. Establishing skin to skin contact with mother and immediate initiation of breastfeeding.
c. Warm resuscitation and warm transportation
d. All the above
Answer: d. All the above
Description:The "warm chain" in newborn care encompasses all of the mentioned actions: drying the baby (a), establishing skin-to-skin contact with the mother and immediate initiation of breastfeeding (b), and providing warm resuscitation and transportation (c). This comprehensive approach is essential for maintaining the baby's warmth and promoting their well-being after birth.
21. Apgar score helps to assess depression of:
a. Cardiopulmonary functions
b. Psychomotor functions
c. Integumentary functions
d. Cardiopulmonary and neurologic function.
Answer: d. Cardiopulmonary and neurologic function.
Description:The Apgar score is a quick assessment tool used to evaluate a newborn's physical condition immediately after birth. It assesses various aspects of the baby's health, including heart rate (cardiac function), respiratory effort (pulmonary function), muscle tone (neurologic function), reflex irritability (neurologic function), and color (integumentary function). This score helps healthcare providers assess the overall well-being and potential need for immediate medical attention of the newborn.
22. Apgar score of 4-6 of newborn indicates:
a. Severe depression
b. Mild depression
c. Moderate depression
d. No depression
Answer: b. Mild depression
Description:An Apgar score of 4-6 for a newborn typically indicates mild depression. It suggests that the baby may require some medical attention or support but is generally in better condition than if the score were lower (severe depression).
23. Normal umbilical cord contains:
a. 1 artery and 2 veins
b. 2 artery and 1 vein
c. 1 artery and 1 vein
d. 2 artery and 2 veins
Answer: b. 2 artery and 1 vein
Description:A normal umbilical cord typically contains two arteries and one vein. The two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus to the placenta, while the vein carries oxygenated blood and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus.
24. Primary postpartum hemorrhage occurs within…………hours of delivery
a. 6 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
Answer: d. 24 hours
Description:Primary postpartum hemorrhage occurs within 24 hours of delivery. It is characterized by significant bleeding following childbirth, and it can happen immediately after delivery or within the first 24 hours postpartum.
25. The management of postpartum hemorrhage includes all; EXCEPT:
a. Bimanual uterine compression
b. Administration of oxytocin
c. Controlled cord traction
d. Administration of progesterone
Answer: d. Administration of progesterone
Description:The management of postpartum hemorrhage typically includes: a. Bimanual uterine compression b. Administration of oxytocin c. Controlled cord traction Progesterone is not a standard treatment for postpartum hemorrhage. Instead, other medications and interventions are used to control bleeding and manage the condition.
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